Does Fourier series of x^2 converge?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the convergence of the Fourier series for the function f(x) = x² defined on the interval [-π, π]. Participants explore whether the series converges and if it converges to the function itself, considering various mathematical theorems and tests related to convergence.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether the Fourier series of f(x) = x² converges, noting difficulties with Dirichlet's test.
  • Another participant suggests that absolute convergence can be shown since the series ∑ (1/n²) converges.
  • A participant acknowledges the initial confusion and agrees that the series likely converges uniformly due to the continuity of the function on the circle and absolute convergence of the Fourier series.
  • One participant challenges the assumption that absolute convergence implies uniform convergence, suggesting that the Weierstrass M-test may be a more appropriate method to infer uniform convergence.
  • Another participant cites a corollary from a textbook that states if a function is continuous and its Fourier series is absolutely convergent, then the series converges uniformly to the function.
  • A later reply expresses appreciation for the cited result, indicating it was previously unknown to them.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the relationship between absolute convergence and uniform convergence, with some asserting a direct connection while others argue for caution in making that inference. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the implications of these convergence properties.

Contextual Notes

There are limitations in the discussion regarding the assumptions made about convergence types and the specific conditions under which the theorems apply. The mathematical steps leading to conclusions about convergence are not fully explored.

gauss mouse
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I'm trying to show that the Fourier series of f(x)=x^2 converges and I can't. Does anybody know if it actually does converge? (I'm assuming that f(x)=x^2 for x\in [-\pi,\pi]).
The Fourier Series itself is \displaystyle\frac{\pi^2}{3}+4\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}\cos nx
I tried using Dirichlet's test but it wasn't working for me, though that may be because I'm doing something wrong.
 
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Isn't it easy to show absolute convergence?? Since \sum \frac{1}{n^2} converges

Do you also want to show that it converges to x^2?? There are many theorems out there that give you that, so it depends on what you have seen.
 
I was just looking to see if it converged. So yes, you're absolutely right. I was going well off-beam with my attempt.

And about converging to x^2; I guess it does so uniformly since the function is continuous on the circle and the Fourier series converges absolutely.

Thank you!
 
gauss mouse said:
I was just looking to see if it converged. So yes, you're absolutely right. I was going well off-beam with my attempt.

And about converging to x^2; I guess it does so uniformly since the function is continuous on the circle and the Fourier series converges absolutely.

Thank you!

It's not because a function is continuous and because the Fourier series converges absolutely, that you can have uniform convergence (I think).
Here, I think you can infer uniform convergence from the Weierstrass M-test.
 
No I think it is. I quote Corollary 2.3 from "Fourier Analysis" by Stein and Shakarchi -

"Suppose that f is a continuous function on the circle and that the Fourier series of f is absolutely convergent, \sum_{n=-\infty}^\infty |\hat{f}(n)|<\infty. Then, the Fourier series converges uniformly to f, that is
\displaystyle \lim_{N\to\infty}S_N(f)(\theta)=f(\theta) uniformly in \theta.
 
Oh ok, I did not know that result. Nice!
 
Yeah it's pretty sweet. It's not too restrictive.
 

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