MHB Does \(g \circ f_n \to g \circ f\) Uniformly on \(A\)?

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The discussion focuses on proving that if \(f_n\) converges uniformly to \(f\) on set \(A\) and \(g\) is continuous on the interval \([a,b]\), then \(g \circ f_n\) converges uniformly to \(g \circ f\) on \(A\). The proof involves demonstrating that \(f(x)\) remains within the bounds \([a,b]\) and utilizing the uniform continuity of \(g\) to establish the necessary conditions for uniform convergence. Participants debate the clarity and completeness of the proof steps, particularly regarding the need to explicitly state conditions like \(f(x) \in [a,b]\) and the implications of choosing \(\epsilon'\) equal to \(\delta\). Ultimately, the conversation emphasizes the importance of rigorous notation and clear logical progression in mathematical proofs. The discussion concludes with a consensus on the necessity of precise language in mathematical arguments.
evinda
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Hi! :)
I am looking at this exercise: Let $f_n \to f$ uniformly on $A$. If $f_n: A \to [a,b], \forall n \in \mathbb{N}$,show that $f:A \to [a,b]$.If,$g:[a,b] \to \mathbb{R}$ is continuous at $[a,b]$,show that $g \circ f_n \to g \circ f$ uniformly on $A$.

That's the solution that the assistant of the professor gave us:

Firstly,we have $a \leq f_n(x) \leq b \Rightarrow \lim_{n \to +\infty} a \leq \lim_{n \to +\infty} f_n(x) \leq \lim_{n \to +\infty} b \Rightarrow a \leq f(x) \leq b$.

$g$ is continuous at $[a,b]$,so it is also uniformly continuous at this interval.So, $\forall \epsilon>0, \exists \delta=\delta(\epsilon)>0$ such that $\forall x,y \in [a,b]$ with $|x-y|< \delta \Rightarrow |g(x)-g(y)| < \epsilon$.
Let $\epsilon'>0$ .$\exists n_0 \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $\forall n \geq n_0$ we have $|f_n(x)-f(x)|< \epsilon' , \forall x \in A$.
We choose $\epsilon'=\delta$.Let now $\epsilon>0$.For $\delta>0, \exists n_0$ such that $\forall n \geq n_0, |f_n(x)-f(x)|< \delta, \forall x \in A \Rightarrow |g(f_n(x))-g(f(x))|< \epsilon $ .
Taking the supremum we have $\sup_{x}|g(f_n(x))-g(f(x))|< \epsilon \Rightarrow \sup |g(f_n(x))-g(f(x))| \to 0$.
But...is it necessary to write it like that:

We choose $\epsilon'=\delta$.Let now $\epsilon>0$.For $\delta>0, \exists n_0$ such that $\forall n \geq n_0, |f_n(x)-f(x)|< \delta, \forall x \in A \Rightarrow |g(f_n(x))-g(f(x))|< \epsilon $ .

Couldn't I just do it like that? :confused:
We pick $\epsilon'=\delta$.Since $f_n,f \in [a,b]$ we have that $|f_n-f|< \delta \Rightarrow |g(f_n(x))-g(f(x))|< \epsilon$.
 
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What's the difference? Is it that you forgot a '$$\forall x \in A$$' at the end?(Giggle)
 
Do I have to set again an $\epsilon$ and a $n_0$, such that the conditions are satisfied?Or can I just say that because of the fact that $f_n,f \in [a,b]$ and $|f_n-f| < \delta$,we have that $|g(f_n(x))-g(f(x))|< \epsilon$ ? (Wondering)
 
evinda said:
Do I have to set again an $\epsilon$ and a $n_0$, such that the conditions are satisfied?Or can I just say that because of the fact that $f_n,f \in [a,b]$ and $|f_n-f| < \delta$,we have that $|g(f_n(x))-g(f(x))|< \epsilon$ ? (Wondering)

No but if you like:cool:
 
So,can I say it like that?

Firstly,we have $a \leq f_n(x) \leq b \Rightarrow \lim_{n \to +\infty} a \leq \lim_{n \to +\infty} f_n(x) \leq \lim_{n \to +\infty} b \Rightarrow a \leq f(x) \leq b$.

$g$ is continuous at $[a,b]$,so it is also uniformly continuous at this interval.So, $\forall \epsilon>0, \exists \delta=\delta(\epsilon)>0$ such that $\forall x,y \in [a,b]$ with $|x-y|< \delta \Rightarrow |g(x)-g(y)| < \epsilon$.
Let $\epsilon'>0$ .$\exists n_0 \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $\forall n \geq n_0$ we have $|f_n(x)-f(x)|< \epsilon' , \forall x \in A$.

We pick $\epsilon'=\delta$.Since $f_n,f \in [a,b]$ we have that $|f_n-f|< \delta \Rightarrow |g(f_n(x))-g(f(x))|< \epsilon$.

Taking the supremum we have $\sup_{x}|g(f_n(x))-g(f(x))|< \epsilon \Rightarrow \sup |g(f_n(x))-g(f(x))| \to 0$.
 
evinda said:
So,can I say it like that?

Firstly,we have $a \leq f_n(x) \leq b \Rightarrow \lim_{n \to +\infty} a \leq \lim_{n \to +\infty} f_n(x) \leq \lim_{n \to +\infty} b \Rightarrow a \leq f(x) \leq b$.

$g$ is continuous at $[a,b]$,so it is also uniformly continuous at this interval.So, $\forall \epsilon>0, \exists \delta=\delta(\epsilon)>0$ such that $\forall x,y \in [a,b]$ with $|x-y|< \delta \Rightarrow |g(x)-g(y)| < \epsilon$.
Let $\epsilon'>0$ .$\exists n_0 \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $\forall n \geq n_0$ we have $|f_n(x)-f(x)|< \epsilon' , \forall x \in A$.

We pick $\epsilon'=\delta$.Since $f_n,f \in [a,b]$ we have that $|f_n-f|< \delta \Rightarrow |g(f_n(x))-g(f(x))|< \epsilon$.

Taking the supremum we have $\sup_{x}|g(f_n(x))-g(f(x))|< \epsilon \Rightarrow \sup |g(f_n(x))-g(f(x))| \to 0$.

You should say $$f(x) \in [a,b]$$, $$|f_n(x)-f(x)|< \delta$$ and so on. Others are OK.
 
stainburg said:
You should say $$f(x) \in [a,b]$$, $$|f_n(x)-f(x)|< \delta$$ and so on. Others are OK.

Ok,thanks! :)
 

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