Does the mod square of the wave function always have to be real?

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The discussion centers on the confusion regarding the modulus square of the wave function in quantum mechanics, specifically in Griffiths' example. It is asserted that the modulus square should be a positive, real number, leading to questions about the disappearance of the imaginary component, isin(2πt/h(E2-E1)). Participants suggest examining the multiplication of expressions in the example to clarify the simplification process. The need for understanding trigonometric identities in this context is emphasized. Ultimately, the discussion aims to resolve the apparent contradiction in the wave function's properties.
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Homework Statement


Doing a bit of QM from Griffiths intro to QM and got stuck early on on the following worked example:

http://imgur.com/6aPVGIr

I was under the impression that the mod square of the wave function ψ(x,t) should always be a positive, real number, but I cannot understand where the isin(2πt/h(E2-E1)) has gone in the last line. Perhaps I'm missing some simplification using trig identities perhaps?


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution

 
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In the next to last equality of the example, there is a product of two expressions in parentheses. Show us what you get when you multiply this out.
 
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Thread 'Correct statement about size of wire to produce larger extension'
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