glebovg Messages 156 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Apr 20, 2012 #1 Is there a proof that there exist (or does not exist) integers m and n such that [itex]{e^{m/n}} = \pi[/itex]? How would one prove such a statement?
Is there a proof that there exist (or does not exist) integers m and n such that [itex]{e^{m/n}} = \pi[/itex]? How would one prove such a statement?
micromass Staff Emeritus Science Advisor Homework Helper Insights Author Messages 22,170 Reaction score 3,335 Apr 20, 2012 #2 This is an unsolved problem. See http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Pi.html
SteveL27 Messages 797 Reaction score 7 Apr 20, 2012 #3 Along those lines, it's unknown whether [itex]e + \pi[/itex] is rational or irrational. If it turned out to be rational, that would be amazing, wouldn't it?
Along those lines, it's unknown whether [itex]e + \pi[/itex] is rational or irrational. If it turned out to be rational, that would be amazing, wouldn't it?