Does This Equation Represent a Family of Surfaces in 3-D Space?

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The discussion centers on the equation Y_1dy_1 + Y_2 dy_2 + Y_3dy_3 = 0, which does not inherently represent a family of surfaces in 3-D space. The condition for this representation is that the coefficients must satisfy the equation involving partial derivatives: Y_1(∂Y_2/∂y_3 - ∂Y_3/∂y_2) + Y_2(∂Y_3/∂y_1 - ∂Y_1/∂y_3) + Y_3(∂Y_1/∂y_2 - ∂Y_2/∂y_1) = 0. An example provided illustrates that the equation y_1 dy_1 + y_2 dy_2 + y_3 dy_3 = 0 results in a set of spheres, demonstrating the relationship between the equations and their geometric interpretations.

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Red_CCF
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Hi

I am currently reading a book where this showed up:

The author gave a ##3## parameter equation (note ##Y## and ##y## are two separate variables):

[tex]Y_1dy_1 + Y_2 dy_2 + Y_3dy_3 = 0[/tex]

and states that this does not necessarily represent a family of surfaces in 3-D space and that only if the coefficient in the above equation satisfies (edit: the equation below should be partial derivatives, I can't have it changed for some reason):

[tex]Y_1\left(\frac{dY_2}{dy_3} - \frac{dY_3}{dy_2}\right) + Y_2\left(\frac{dY_3}{dy_1} - \frac{dY_1}{dy_3}\right) + Y_3\left(\frac{dY_1}{dy_2} - \frac{dY_2}{dy_1}\right) = 0[/tex]

Edit (Mark44): Is this what you meant?
$$Y_1\left(\frac{\partial Y_2}{\partial y_3} - \frac{\partial Y_3}{\partial y_2}\right) + Y_2\left(\frac{\partial Y_3}{\partial y_1} - \frac{\partial Y_1}{\partial y_3}\right) + Y_3\left(\frac{\partial Y_1}{\partial y_2} - \frac{\partial Y_2}{\partial y_1}\right) = 0 $$
I don't know the answer to your question, but thought I would edit your post for you.
[/color]
can the integral result in a family of surfaces. The example he gave was:

[tex]y_1 dy_1 + y_2dy_2 + y_3dy_3 = 0[/tex]

for which gives an set of spheres.

I have no idea how he got from the first to the second equation. Can anyone help me out?

Thanks
 
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Hi Mark44

Yes the highlighted is what I meant, thank you for changing it
 

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