Doomsday differential equation

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on solving the Doomsday differential equation defined as dy/dx = ky^(1+c) with the initial condition y(0) = y₀. The solution is derived as y(t) = y₀ / (1 - y₀^(c)ckt)^(c), where T = 1/(cky₀^(c)) represents the blow-up time. Participants clarify the significance of the constant C and the implications of the solution, emphasizing that for any c > 0, the function y(t) approaches infinity at time T, leading to a vertical asymptote in the graph.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of differential equations, specifically separable equations.
  • Familiarity with initial value problems and integration techniques.
  • Knowledge of asymptotic behavior in mathematical functions.
  • Basic concepts of mathematical modeling in population dynamics or similar fields.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of solutions for separable differential equations.
  • Explore the implications of blow-up solutions in differential equations.
  • Learn about the applications of the Doomsday differential equation in real-world scenarios.
  • Investigate numerical methods for solving differential equations with singularities.
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Mathematicians, physicists, and engineers interested in differential equations, particularly those studying population dynamics or systems exhibiting blow-up behavior.

Trousers
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1. Let c be a positive number. a differential equation of the form
dy/dx=ky^(1+c)
Determine the solution that satisfies the initial condition y(0)=y(subzero)

The solution is y(subzero)=(1)/((ckT)^(1/c))

but I can't understand how to find it. ok when i integrate

dy/y^(1+c)=kdt, I get y^(-c)/(-c)=kt+C and I don't know what do from there.
 
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I googled the term "doomsday differential equation" and guess what? The top 2 entries were this thread itself and an older one which concerns the same DE:

https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=73150

EDIT: Does anyone know why it's called the doomsday equation?
 
that doesn't help me.
 
Try leaving it in the form

y^c = f(x)

and then solve for C (the integration constant, not the one in the form I just mentioned).
 
1. It is called the Doomsday equation because for any c>0, there exists a finite time T when y blows up (i.e, graphing y(t) with t as the argument axis, there would be a vertical asymptote to the graph at t=T, which the graph of y(t) will follow into infinity as t approaches T)

2. Now, for the solution:
We have that -\frac{1}{cy(t)^{c}}=kt+C in (') where our initial condition y(0)=y_{0} now can be used to determine C:
-\frac{1}{cy_{0}^{c}}=C
Inserting in (*) and simplifying, we have:
\frac{1}{y(t)^{c}}=\frac{1}{y_{0}^{c}}-ckt=\frac{1-y_{0}^{c}ckt}{y_{0}^{c}}
Or, reciprocating, and taking the c-root on both sides:
y(t)=\frac{y_{0}}{(1-y_{0}^{c}ckt)^{c}}

Now, the blow-up instant T must fulfill the equation:
1-y_{0}^{c}ckT=0\to{T}=\frac{1}{cky_{0}^{c}}
Using the blow-up time T as our independent parameter, rather than y_0, we get from the same equation: y_{0}=\frac{1}{(ckT)^{\frac{1}{c}}}

The first result is simplest to use when you DO know the value of y_0, and wants to know WHEN the solution will blow up.

The second result is most convenient when you know when the solution is going to blow up, and wants to know what was the initial value of y, i.e, y_0.
 
thank you.
 
Trousers said:
1. Let c be a positive number. a differential equation of the form
dy/dx=ky^(1+c)
Determine the solution that satisfies the initial condition y(0)=y(subzero)

The solution is y(subzero)=(1)/((ckT)^(1/c))

but I can't understand how to find it. ok when i integrate

dy/y^(1+c)=kdt, I get y^(-c)/(-c)=kt+C and I don't know what do from there.

I have no idea what you are saying. "The solution is y(subzero)=(1)/((ckT)^(1/c))" can't possibly be right- there is no y(t) in it so it can't be a solution to the differenital equation. Also, is T supposed to be t are is it a specific value of t?
 

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