((e^(i*pi))^x)-((e^(-i*pi))^x)=0? how?

[powerplayer]

Can someone help explain this? Wolfram says it is zero but I don't know why?

 

[Whovian]

Perhaps this will help: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euler's_formula

 

[powerplayer]

Ok I know eulers but how does 1^x - (-1)^x = 0?

 

[Whovian]

That's $\left(-1\right)^x-\left(-1\right)^x$, after some simplification.

 

[Mentallic]

Ok I know eulers but how does 1^x - (-1)^x = 0?

e^{ix}=\cos(x)+i \sin(x) hence after plugging x=-\pi we get e^{-i\pi}=\cos(-\pi) +i \sin(-\pi) and recall that \cos(-x)=\cos(x) and \sin(-x)=-\sin(x) thus we have e^{-i\pi}=\cos(\pi)-i\sin(\pi)=-1-0i=-1 while similarly, e^{i\pi}=\cos(\pi)+i\sin(\pi)=-1+0i=-1

 

[powerplayer]

e^{ix}=\cos(x)+i \sin(x) hence after plugging x=-\pi we get e^{-i\pi}=\cos(-\pi) +i \sin(-\pi) and recall that \cos(-x)=\cos(x) and \sin(-x)=-\sin(x) thus we have e^{-i\pi}=\cos(\pi)-i\sin(\pi)=-1-0i=-1 while similarly, e^{i\pi}=\cos(\pi)+i\sin(\pi)=-1+0i=-1

Ok I see now thx

 

[haruspex]

Ok I know eulers but how does 1^x - (-1)^x = 0?

((e^(i*pi))^x)-((e^(-i*pi))^x) does not reduce to 1^x - (-1)^x.
It reduces to (-1)^x - (-1)^x.