Hello All, I've recently become interested in learning more about the concept of quantum non-locality, and have a quick question I hoped someone might be able to shed some light on for me. My question is this: How do we know that Einstein was wrong that some "local hidden variable" accounts for the fact that the respective spins of two once "entangled" but now distant photons, to take a classic example, will always be oppossite? In other words, what is it about modern-day experiments that "proves" that these distant photons are actually engaging in some kind of instantaneous communication, as opposed to the much simpler (and thus arguably more likely) conclusion that these two photons always had, and always will have, opposite spins. Doesn't this simpler explanation (which I believe was Einstein's explanation) account for the fact that the spins, once measured, will always be oppossite (i.e., they are opposite because they started out like that and will always be like that, and thus, the measurement is not determining the spin, but only recording it). I know the answer relates to Bell's Inequality Theorem and experiments that prove it, but I've yet to come accross an easily understandable (for a layperson) explanation of how we know that distant particles are in fact RESPONDING to measurements taken of the other, as opposed to just continuing to exist in their original state? It seems to me that to prove that there truly is an instantaneous response to measurements to or impacts on one of these photons, we would have to change the spin, and see if the spin of the corresponding photon also changes. Have any experiments to this effect been conducted. Thanks in advance for any resposnses. Scott.