EmilyRuck
- 134
- 6
Hello!
When considering the boundary conditions for the electromagnetic field \mathbf{E}, \mathbf{H} on the surface of a Perfect Eletric Conductor we have:
The current density flows on the surface a PEC, so we can consider as an equivalent situation the superposition of \mathbf{J}_S and its image current, which is exactly opposite of \mathbf{J}_S: the net current is 0 (this argument is used in order to prove that an electric current flowing on a PEC does not radiate).
But doesn't this affect the boundary conditions on the magnetic field? If the current is zero, why the relative boundary condition is not written as 0 = \mathbf{\hat{n}} \times \mathbf{H}?!
Emily
When considering the boundary conditions for the electromagnetic field \mathbf{E}, \mathbf{H} on the surface of a Perfect Eletric Conductor we have:
- \mathbf{E} \times \mathbf{\hat{n}} = 0
- \mathbf{J}_S = \mathbf{\hat{n}} \times \mathbf{H}
The current density flows on the surface a PEC, so we can consider as an equivalent situation the superposition of \mathbf{J}_S and its image current, which is exactly opposite of \mathbf{J}_S: the net current is 0 (this argument is used in order to prove that an electric current flowing on a PEC does not radiate).
But doesn't this affect the boundary conditions on the magnetic field? If the current is zero, why the relative boundary condition is not written as 0 = \mathbf{\hat{n}} \times \mathbf{H}?!
Emily