Elementary Number Theory: Wilson's Theorem

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SUMMARY

This discussion focuses on proving that a prime number p is the smallest prime divisor of the expression (p-1)! + 1, leveraging Wilson's Theorem and Fermat's Little Theorem. The user seeks clarification on the congruence relationships involving primes q less than p and their implications on the divisibility of (p-1)! + 1. Key points include the assertion that if q is a prime less than p, then q does not divide (p-1)! + 1, and the exploration of congruences that arise from this relationship.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Wilson's Theorem
  • Fermat's Little Theorem
  • Basic concepts of modular arithmetic
  • Knowledge of prime numbers and their properties
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the implications of Wilson's Theorem on prime divisors
  • Study congruences in modular arithmetic
  • Explore advanced proofs related to prime factorization
  • Examine examples of factorial expressions and their properties
USEFUL FOR

This discussion is beneficial for mathematicians, number theorists, and students studying elementary number theory, particularly those interested in prime number properties and proofs involving factorials.

cwatki14
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I am aiming to prove that p is the smallest prime that divides (p-1)!+1. I got the first part of the proof. It pretty much follows from Fermat's Little Theorem/ Wilson's Theorem, but I am stuck on how to prove that p is the smallest prime that divides (p-1)! +1. I am assuming that every other prime divisor of (p-1)!+1 is related to p by some congruence? Any ideas how to prove this tidbit? - Thanks
 
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Let q < p be a prime. Now what can you say about the congruence \left(p-1\right)!\equiv -1\left(\rm{mod} q\right)?
 
JSuarez said:
Let q < p be a prime. Now what can you say about the congruence \left(p-1\right)!\equiv -1\left(\rm{mod} q\right)?

If q< p then q does q no longer divides (p-1)!+1? If a prime is larger than p then does it also not divide (p-1)!+1?
 
You have proved that p is a divisor of (p-1)!+1. Now you want to prove that it is the smallest prime divisor of that quantity, so let's stick with a prime q < p. What does the congruence that I wrote in the first post reduces to?
 
so when you pair each term with an inverse everything equals out to one 1x1x(p-1) but when q<p all of these pairs of inverses don't cancel? are there still terms on one of the sides of the congruence?
 
If q < p, is q a factor of (p-1)!? If yes, what happens when you reduce mod q?
 

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