sixstringartist said:
This problem was discussed in lecture and I think was a poor problem. The way I did it was how it was intended. But you are correct in the apparent loss of energy which was due to friction?!? Thats what the prof said... then he discussed how the microscopic model of friction where "peaks" slide across each other, resulting in a shorter distance. Thats what I got from the explanation but it doesn't all make sense to me.
There was no friction included in the problem. It was done as if the floor were perfectly frictionless. What you have in this problem can be considered to be a series of inelastic collisions between mass in motion and mass at rest. Each time a bit of mass dm starts to move, the momentum change of the system is exactly equivalent to an inelastic collision between that bit of mass (dm) initially at rest and the part of the chain already in motion while accelerataing under the action of the applied force. Energy is not conserved in this process. A lot of the work done gets converted into thermal energy of the chain.
A justification for your calculation follows:
x is the position of the end of the chain where F is applied, with x = 0 at the coiled end. When an external force is applied to a system of particles, the CM of the system accelerates obeying Newton's second law.
[tex]x_{CM} = \frac{1}{M}\frac{x}{2}\frac{{Mx}}{L} = \frac{{x^2 }}{{2L}}[/tex]
but that is not explicitly needed to do the problem
[tex]F_{ext} = Ma_{CM} = M\frac{{dv_{CM} }}{{dt}} = M\frac{{dv_{CM} }}{{dx_{CM} }}\frac{{dx_{CM} }}{{dt}} = Mv_{CM} \frac{{dv_{CM} }}{{dx_{CM} }}[/tex]
where the chain rule has been used so the variables can be separated as follows
[tex]F_{ext} dx_{CM} = Mv_{CM} dv_{CM}[/tex]
[tex]F_{ext} \int_0^{L/2} {dx_{CM} } = M\int_0^V {v_{CM} dv_{CM} }[/tex]
[tex]F_{ext} \frac{L}{2} = M\frac{{V^2 }}{2}[/tex]
[tex]F_{ext} L = MV^2[/tex]
The work done is twice the final kinetic energy of the chain.