Equicontinuity at a point if.f. continuous function constant

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The discussion centers on proving that a set of functions defined as f_n(x) = f(x^n) is equicontinuous at x=1 if and only if the continuous function f is constant. When f is constant, all f_n are equal, confirming equicontinuity. Conversely, if the f_n functions are equicontinuous at x=1, the argument hinges on the behavior of f(y^n) as y approaches 1, suggesting that f must remain close to a constant value. The participants explore the implications of continuity and convergence, ultimately considering a contrapositive approach to show that non-constant f leads to a lack of equicontinuity. The discussion emphasizes the need for a rigorous argument to solidify these intuitive conclusions.
adam512
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Hello,

I have a problem I cannot solve. I have been working with problems with convergence of sequences of functions for some time now. But I can't seem to solve most of the problems. Anyway here is my problem:

Consider a continuous function f: [0, \infty) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}. For each n define f_n(x) = f(x^n). Show that the set of continuous function \{f_1, f_2, \ldots \} is equicontinuous at x=1 if and only if f is a constant function.

1. Assume f = k is constant, then f_n(x) = f(x^n) = k for all x.

|f_n(x) - f_n(y) | = |f(x^n) - f(y^n)| = |k-k| = 0, so it is indeed equicontinuous everywhere, in particular at 1.


2. Assume f_n is equicontinuous at x=1. By definition this means

\forall \epsilon > 0, \, \exists \delta > 0 : |1 - y| < \delta \Rightarrow |f_n(1) - f_n(y)| < \epsilon holds for all n.

Now f_n(1) = f(1^n) = f(1) for all n, let's say f(1^n) = c, and f_n(y) = f(y^n). So we can write the above expression:

\forall \epsilon > 0, \, \exists \delta > 0 : |1 - y| < \delta \Rightarrow |f(y^n) - c| < \epsilon.

Now from this I want to arrive at f is constant. I think I need to use the fact that f is continuous but I can't see how. It feels intuitively right that if |f(y^n) - c| < \epsilon for every n, it is arbitrarily close to a constant function along a sequence which for y < 1 converges to 0, and for y > 1 diverges to \infty.

Thanks in advance!
 
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Let's give an intuitive argument. I leave it up to you to get this thing rigorous.

Take ##\varepsilon## small. Find a ##\delta## such that equicontinuity holds at ##1##. We know that if ##|y-1|<\delta##, then ##|f(y^n) - c|<\varepsilon##. And you know this to be true for all ##n##. Assume that ##y = 1/2## is of ##\delta##-distance of ##1##. Then you know that all of

f(1/2), f(1/4),..., f(1/2^n)

are ##\varepsilon##-close to ##c##.

Let's take a smaller ##\varepsilon^\prime## now and take a ##\delta^\prime## satisfying equicontinuity. We might not have anymore that ##1/2## is within ##\delta^\prime##-distance of ##1##. But maybe ##\sqrt{1/2}## or something similar is, and then you know that all of

f(\sqrt{1/2}), f(1/2), ...

is within ##\varepsilon^\prime##-distance of ##c##, and this contains the previous sequence.

You see where I'm going??
 
Thanks for the reply!

But I am afraid I still don't see how this can be used to show that f is constant.

I think you are going for the fact that f must be constant since it is arbitrarily close to a constant function along every sequence?
There must be something I'm missing. It's the same with every single problem. I get halfway but then never manage to finish.

I have a question about this: In my textbook it says that

\lim_{x\rightarrow p} f(x) = q if and only if \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} f(p_n) = q whenever p_n \neq p and \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} p_n = p.

I must ask this. If we for example have that

for every p_n \rightarrow p have \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} f(p_n) = constant implies that f is constant?
 
R136a1 said:
Let's give an intuitive argument. I leave it up to you to get this thing rigorous.

Take ##\varepsilon## small. Find a ##\delta## such that equicontinuity holds at ##1##. We know that if ##|y-1|<\delta##, then ##|f(y^n) - c|<\varepsilon##. And you know this to be true for all ##n##. Assume that ##y = 1/2## is of ##\delta##-distance of ##1##. Then you know that all of

f(1/2), f(1/4),..., f(1/2^n)

are ##\varepsilon##-close to ##c##.

Let's take a smaller ##\varepsilon^\prime## now and take a ##\delta^\prime## satisfying equicontinuity. We might not have anymore that ##1/2## is within ##\delta^\prime##-distance of ##1##. But maybe ##\sqrt{1/2}## or something similar is, and then you know that all of

f(\sqrt{1/2}), f(1/2), ...

is within ##\varepsilon^\prime##-distance of ##c##, and this contains the previous sequence.

You see where I'm going??

adam512 said:
Thanks for the reply!

But I am afraid I still don't see how this can be used to show that f is constant.

It is easier to prove the contrapositive: show that if f is not constant then (f_n) are not equicontinuous at 1.

You will want to recall that if x &gt; 0 then
<br /> \lim_{k \to \infty} x^{1/k} = 1.<br />
 

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