lttlbbygurl
- 6
- 0
We have a equivalence relation on [0,1] × [0,1] by letting (x_0, y_0) ~ (x_1, y_1) if and only if x_0 = x_1 > 0... then how do we show that X\ ~is not a Hausdorff space ?
The discussion centers on the equivalence relation defined on the set [0,1] × [0,1], where two points (x_0, y_0) and (x_1, y_1) are equivalent if x_0 = x_1 > 0. It concludes that the point (0,0) does not satisfy the properties of an equivalence relation, as it is not equivalent to itself. Furthermore, the conversation highlights that the singleton equivalence classes, such as {(0,y)}, are significant in understanding the topology of the space, particularly regarding the nature of open sets in the quotient topology.
PREREQUISITESMathematicians, particularly those specializing in topology, students studying advanced mathematics, and anyone interested in the properties of equivalence relations and Hausdorff spaces.
g_edgar said:Wait, so (0,0) is not equivalent to itself? Then it's not an equivalence relation?