Evaluate Limit: $\frac{0}{0}$ - Can Someone Help?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the limit $\lim_{{x}\to{0^+}}\left(\frac{e^(\frac{-1}{x})}{x^n}\right)$, which presents an indeterminate form of $\frac{0}{0}$. Participants explore various approaches to resolve this limit using logarithmic transformations and L'Hospital's rule.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant proposes using logarithmic transformation to analyze the limit, leading to an expression that results in an indeterminate form.
  • Another participant suggests a method involving a substitution with $u = \frac{1}{x}$, which transforms the limit into a more manageable form.
  • A question is raised regarding the manipulation of terms in the limit, specifically how certain expressions are simplified during the process.
  • Several participants acknowledge errors in their previous posts, indicating a collaborative effort to refine their understanding of the limit evaluation.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the best approach to evaluate the limit, and some uncertainty remains regarding the steps taken in the calculations.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include potential missing assumptions about the behavior of logarithmic terms and the conditions under which L'Hospital's rule is applied. The discussion also reflects varying levels of familiarity with calculus techniques among participants.

joypav
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I'm trying to show...

$\lim_{{x}\to{0^+}}\left(\frac{e^(\frac{-1}{x})}{x^n}\right)=0$

I guess my calculus is a bit rusty. Can someone help me out?
Here's what I've got.

$\lim_{{x}\to{0^+}}ln\left(\frac{e^(\frac{-1}{x})}{x^n}\right)=\lim_{{x}\to{0^+}}\left(-\frac{1}{x}-ln(x^n)\right)=-\infty+\infty$

So, I put it in a form to get $\frac{0}{0}$ so I can use L'Hospital's.

$\lim_{{x}\to{0^+}}\frac{x+\frac{1}{ln(x^n)}}{-\frac{x}{ln(x^n)}}$

Is this how I am supposed to be proceeding? (Wondering)
[/size]
 
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There's a trick to this one.

-(1/x + nlog(x))

-(1/x - nlog(1/x))

-(u - nlog(u)) as u approaches infinity (a swap with 1/x) :)

-(1 - nlog(u)/u)/(1/u)

Hence we have (if you'll pardon the notation :o) $e^{-\infty}=0$.[/size]

I'm assuming $n$ is a constant.
 
$-(u - nlog(u))$

$\frac{-(1-nlog(u)}{\frac{1}{u}}$

How do you get from here to here?
I understand that if you factor out a $u$ the first term becomes $1$, but why does $nlog(u)$ stay the same?
 
My apologies - i made an error. I have edited my post.
 
greg1313 said:
My apologies - i made an error. I have edited my post.

Gotcha. Thanks!
 

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