MHB Evaluate Limit: $\frac{0}{0}$ - Can Someone Help?

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I'm trying to show...

$\lim_{{x}\to{0^+}}\left(\frac{e^(\frac{-1}{x})}{x^n}\right)=0$

I guess my calculus is a bit rusty. Can someone help me out?
Here's what I've got.

$\lim_{{x}\to{0^+}}ln\left(\frac{e^(\frac{-1}{x})}{x^n}\right)=\lim_{{x}\to{0^+}}\left(-\frac{1}{x}-ln(x^n)\right)=-\infty+\infty$

So, I put it in a form to get $\frac{0}{0}$ so I can use L'Hospital's.

$\lim_{{x}\to{0^+}}\frac{x+\frac{1}{ln(x^n)}}{-\frac{x}{ln(x^n)}}$

Is this how I am supposed to be proceeding? (Wondering)
[/size]
 
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There's a trick to this one.

-(1/x + nlog(x))

-(1/x - nlog(1/x))

-(u - nlog(u)) as u approaches infinity (a swap with 1/x) :)

-(1 - nlog(u)/u)/(1/u)

Hence we have (if you'll pardon the notation :o) $e^{-\infty}=0$.[/size]

I'm assuming $n$ is a constant.
 
$-(u - nlog(u))$

$\frac{-(1-nlog(u)}{\frac{1}{u}}$

How do you get from here to here?
I understand that if you factor out a $u$ the first term becomes $1$, but why does $nlog(u)$ stay the same?
 
My apologies - i made an error. I have edited my post.
 
greg1313 said:
My apologies - i made an error. I have edited my post.

Gotcha. Thanks!
 
I've encountered a few different definitions of "indefinite integral," denoted ##\int f(x) \, dx##. any particular antiderivative ##F:\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}, F'(x) = f(x)## the set of all antiderivatives ##\{F:\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}, F'(x) = f(x)\}## a "canonical" antiderivative any expression of the form ##\int_a^x f(x) \, dx##, where ##a## is in the domain of ##f## and ##f## is continuous Sometimes, it becomes a little unclear which definition an author really has in mind, though...

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