Evaluate the Mobius transformation

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the expression ##\frac{|z-a|}{|1-\bar{a}z|}##, where ##|z|=1## and ##1-\bar{a}z\neq 0##. Participants explore the properties of this expression as a Möbius transformation and its implications in complex analysis.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss various methods to evaluate the expression, including squaring the function and working with Cartesian coordinates. Some question the necessity of squaring and explore the simplifications that arise from different approaches, such as using polar coordinates or complex conjugates.

Discussion Status

There is active exploration of different methods to simplify the expression, with some participants suggesting that squaring the function may help clarify the relationship between the numerator and denominator. Multiple interpretations of the problem are being considered, and while some participants express confidence in their calculations, there is no explicit consensus on the final evaluation.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that this question was part of a midterm exam, emphasizing the context of academic integrity in their discussion. There are also references to external resources for further understanding of Möbius transformations.

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Homework Statement
evaluate the quotient of two complex numbers
Relevant Equations
evaluate the quotient of two complex numbers
Let ##|z|=1## and ##1-\bar{a}z\neq 0##.

Evaluate ##\frac{|z-a|}{|1-\bar{a}z|}##. It should be a real number.

I read that ##f=\frac{|z-a|}{|1-\bar{a}z|}## is a mobious transformation, but I do not know what it means. @fresh_42##z=e^{i\theta_1}, a=r_2e^{i\theta_2}##

##\frac{|z-a|}{|1-\bar{a}z|}=\frac{|e^{i\theta_1}-r_2e^{i\theta_2}|}{|1-r_2e^{i(\theta_1-\theta_2)}|}##
 
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Here is a short explanation with an interesting property (problem #8):
https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/math-challenge-august-2021.1005685/
(behind the 'solved by' note is a link to the solution @julian gave)
and here is a longer one:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Möbius_transformation

I would square the function:
$$
f^2=\dfrac{(z-a)(\bar{z}-\bar{a})}{(1-\bar{a}z)(1-a\bar{z})}
$$
and work with Cartesian coordinates: ##z=x+i y\, , \,\bar{z}=x- i y\, , \,a=u+ i v\, , \,\bar{a}=u-iv## and see if the expression simplifies. The polar coordinates might work as well, but I think it remains a mess. Of course, you could also use the sine and cosine functions, but I would definitely start with the Cartesian coordinates.
 
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fresh_42 said:
Here is a short explanation with an interesting property (problem #8):
https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/math-challenge-august-2021.1005685/
(behind the 'solved by' note is a link to the solution @julian gave)
and here is a longer one:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Möbius_transformation

I would square the function:
$$
f^2=\dfrac{(z-a)(\bar{z}-\bar{a})}{(1-\bar{a}z)(1-a\bar{z})}
$$
and work with Cartesian coordinates: ##z=x+i y\, , \,\bar{z}=x- i y\, , \,a=u+ i v\, , \,\bar{a}=u-iv## and see if the expression simplifies. The polar coordinates might work as well, but I think it remains a mess. Of course, you could also use the sine and cosine functions, but I would definitely start with the Cartesian coordinates.
I would have never guessed to try complex squaring the function... I tried multiplying the denominator and the numerator by ##1-a\bar{z}## and was unable to simplify.

By doing the squaring, and plugging in ##z\bar{z}=1##, the function simplifies so that the denominator equals the numerator and it's just 1. (I didn't use cartesian coordinates and still got this result, and I really hope i didn't mess up the calculation because it really would be embarrassing)
 
##f^2=(\frac{|z-a|}{|1-\bar{a}z|} )^2=\frac{z\bar{z}-a\bar{z}-\bar{a}z+a\bar{a}}{1-\bar{a}z-a\bar{z}+a\bar{a}z\bar{z}}##

##\frac{1-a\bar{z}-\bar{a}z+a\bar{a}}{1-\bar{a}z-a\bar{z}+a\bar{a}}=1##

##\therefore \frac{|z-a|}{|1-\bar{a}z|} =1##

This question was on a midterm I took yesterday (so I'm not cheating!)
 
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You can also multiply the numerator by ##|\bar{z}|## (which is 1) and then the numerator and denominator are complex conjugates of each other.
 
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Office_Shredder said:
You can also multiply the numerator by ##|\bar{z}|## (which is 1) and then the numerator and denominator are complex conjugates of each other.
and that is a clue that the quotient should be complex squared, right?
 
docnet said:
and that is a clue that the quotient should be complex squared, right?
Squaring was only meant to get rid of the root in the definition of the norm. After you saw the simplifications you made, you could write a root above every term of your calculation, so squaring wasn't actually necessary. However, it removed the "distraction" by the root behind ##|\, \text{.} \,|## and allowed us to concentrate on the essential parts.

I have two major principles approaching an algebraic expression: Get rid of what disturbs, and use the definitions.
 
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docnet said:
and that is a clue that the quotient should be complex squared, right?

Once the numerator and denominator are complex conjugates, then you know they have the same magnitude, so you're done.
 
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