- #1
CoachBryan
- 14
- 0
I've been very confused with this proof, because if a sequence { 1, 1, 1, 1, ...} is convergent and bounded by 1, would this be considered to be a Cauchy sequence? I'm wondering if this has an accumulation point as well, by using the Bolzanno-Weirstrauss theorem.
I really appreciate the help guys. Thanks.
I really appreciate the help guys. Thanks.