I've been very confused with this proof, because if a sequence { 1, 1, 1, 1, ...} is convergent and bounded by 1, would this be considered to be a Cauchy sequence? I'm wondering if this has an accumulation point as well, by using the Bolzanno-Weirstrauss theorem.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I really appreciate the help guys. Thanks.

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# Every bounded sequence is Cauchy?

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