Existence of solution to Poisson's equation

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the existence of solutions to Poisson's equation, particularly in the context of vector potentials and gauge shifts. The user seeks to demonstrate that fixing the divergence of a gauge-shifted vector potential is equivalent to adding the gradient of a scalar function, leading to the conclusion that Poisson's equation has solutions for arbitrary source terms. The conversation highlights the challenges posed by the lack of boundary conditions and the potential for infinite solutions, as well as the limitations of certain source terms that do not decay adequately.

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  • Understanding of vector calculus, specifically divergence and curl operations.
  • Familiarity with Poisson's equation and its applications in electrodynamics.
  • Knowledge of the Helmholtz theorem and its implications for vector fields.
  • Basic concepts of numerical integration techniques for differential equations.
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I'm reteaching electrodynamics to myself on a more rigorous footing, and I'm trying to prove to myself that setting the divergence of the vector potential is justified using a gauge shift. I could use the Helmholtz theorem to do this, but the problem with this from my perspective is that I haven't actually justified the full version of the theorem, only the weaker version which requires that a vector function decay to zero faster than 1/r at infinity. This isn't a problem for the field quantities (since all physical fields decay like 1/r^2); nevertheless, they do pose a problem for the potential quantities (which in general will not even decay). Basically, given a vector potential \vec{A}, I want to show that fixing the divergence of the gauge-shifted potential \vec{A}\prime to some scalar function D is equivalent to adding the gradient of some some scalar function \phi.

\nabla \cdot \vec{A}' = D
\nabla \cdot (\vec{A} + \nabla \phi) = D
{\nabla}^2 \phi = D - \nabla \cdot \vec{A}

Since the right-hand side is just some function of position, proving that the divergence can be adjusted by adding the gradient of a scalar amounts to proving that Poisson's equation has a solution for an arbitrary source term. No boundary conditions are specified, so I would expect that there are actually an infinite number of solutions; however, I cannot prove this. Does anyone have any insights? Thanks.
 
Last edited:
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Can we solve this system of equations?

\nabla \cdot \mathbf{X} = \theta
\nabla \times \mathbf{X} = 0

If we know \nabla \times \mathbf{V} = 0, can we solve this equation?

\nabla \varphi = \mathbf{V}

If so, then we can chain these results to solve the Poisson equation.

\nabla^2 \varphi = \theta

If you know a counterexample to one of the above questions, I suspect you could use it to construct a Poisson equation without a solution.
 
Thanks for the response, Hurkyl. I've been thinking about it some more, and I've been able to informally construct a solution to the equation, but I'm still not quite satisfied. Since there are no boundary conditions specified, and I'm just trying to construct any solution, I arbitrarily specified that

\phi (x=0) = \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x} = 0

It would then seem to me that if you numerically integrated with a small enough dx, you could construct phi as follows:

\phi (x+dx,y,z) = \phi (x,y,z) + \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x} (x,y,z) \cdot dx

\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x} (x+dx,y,z) = \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x} (x,y,z) + \frac{{\partial}^2\phi}{\partial {x}^2} (x,y,z) \cdot dx

= \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x} (x,y,z) + (f(x,y,z) - \frac{{\partial}^2\phi}{\partial {y}^2}- \frac{{\partial}^2\phi}{\partial {z}^2}) \cdot dx

(f(x,y,z) is the source term.) Obviously, this method fails for some source terms, like the pathological sin(1/x) or any function which blows up, but other than those cases, it seems to be pretty solid. I've tried to "un-discretize" the construction to form integrals, but the expression gets pretty messy quickly. Could anyone explain how to to it a little more formally, since I'm still not convinced?
 
Last edited:
Hurkyl said:
Wikipedia gives a solution for a function that decays adequately:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Screened_Poisson_equation
Yeah, but AFAIK, the problem with that solution is that the integral will only converge if the source term decays faster than 1/r^2, which is not in general the case when dealing with potentials.
 

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