wads
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i'm just not sure on this little detail, and its keeping me from finishing this problem.
take the arbitrary operator \tilde{p}^{n}\tilde{y}^{m} where p is the momentum operator , and x is the x position operator
the expectation value is then <\tilde{p}^{n}\tilde{y}^{m} >
is this the same as <\tilde{p}^{n}> <\tilde{y}^{m}>?
if not, how would i go about calculating <\tilde{p}^{n}\tilde{y}^{m} >?
take the arbitrary operator \tilde{p}^{n}\tilde{y}^{m} where p is the momentum operator , and x is the x position operator
the expectation value is then <\tilde{p}^{n}\tilde{y}^{m} >
is this the same as <\tilde{p}^{n}> <\tilde{y}^{m}>?
if not, how would i go about calculating <\tilde{p}^{n}\tilde{y}^{m} >?
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