Expectation values and operators.

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The discussion focuses on the calculation of expectation values for the operator combination \tilde{p}^{n}\tilde{y}^{m}, where \tilde{p} is the momentum operator and \tilde{y} is the position operator. It clarifies that the expectation value <\tilde{p}^{n}\tilde{y}^{m}> is generally not equal to the product of individual expectation values <\tilde{p}^{n}> <\tilde{y}^{m}>. The correct calculation involves integrating the product of the wavefunction and the operators, expressed as an integral of the form ∫ Ψ^*(x) \hat{p}^n \hat{y}^m Ψ(x) dx. To compute this, one can express the momentum operator in the position basis and analyze its effect on the wavefunction. Understanding this distinction is crucial for solving quantum mechanics problems accurately.
wads
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i'm just not sure on this little detail, and its keeping me from finishing this problem.

take the arbitrary operator \tilde{p}^{n}\tilde{y}^{m} where p is the momentum operator , and x is the x position operator

the expectation value is then <\tilde{p}^{n}\tilde{y}^{m} >

is this the same as <\tilde{p}^{n}> <\tilde{y}^{m}>?

if not, how would i go about calculating <\tilde{p}^{n}\tilde{y}^{m} >?
 
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In general, they are not the same. The expectation value of an operator \hat A is
\int \Psi^*(x) \hat A(x) \Psi(x) \, \mathrm{d}x
where \Psi(x) is your wavefunction (assuming you are talking QM here).
In this case,
\int \Psi^*(x) \hat p^n \hat y^m \Psi(x) \, \mathrm{d}x<br /> \neq<br /> \left( \int \Psi^*(x) \hat p^n \Psi(x) \, \mathrm{d}x \right)<br /> \left( \int \Psi^*(x) \hat y^m \Psi(x) \, \mathrm{d}x \right).<br />
You could write out \hat p in the position basis and work out what \hat p^n(y^m \Psi) looks like.
 

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