Expectation values and operators.

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the calculation of expectation values for operators in quantum mechanics, specifically the arbitrary operator \(\tilde{p}^{n}\tilde{y}^{m}\), where \(\tilde{p}\) represents the momentum operator and \(\tilde{y}\) represents the position operator. It is established that the expectation value \(\langle \tilde{p}^{n}\tilde{y}^{m} \rangle\) is not equal to the product of the individual expectation values \(\langle \tilde{p}^{n} \rangle \langle \tilde{y}^{m} \rangle\). The correct calculation involves integrating the product of the wavefunction \(\Psi(x)\) with the operators, leading to the expression \(\int \Psi^*(x) \hat{p}^n \hat{y}^m \Psi(x) \, \mathrm{d}x\).

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics principles
  • Familiarity with operators in quantum mechanics
  • Knowledge of wavefunctions and their properties
  • Ability to perform integrals involving complex functions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of quantum mechanical operators
  • Learn about the position and momentum operators in quantum mechanics
  • Explore the concept of expectation values in quantum mechanics
  • Investigate the use of wavefunctions in operator calculations
USEFUL FOR

Students and professionals in quantum mechanics, physicists working with operator theory, and anyone interested in advanced calculations of expectation values in quantum systems.

wads
Messages
1
Reaction score
0
i'm just not sure on this little detail, and its keeping me from finishing this problem.

take the arbitrary operator [tex]\tilde{p}^{n}\tilde{y}^{m}[/tex] where p is the momentum operator , and x is the x position operator

the expectation value is then <[tex]\tilde{p}^{n}\tilde{y}^{m}[/tex] >

is this the same as <[tex]\tilde{p}^{n}[/tex]> <[tex]\tilde{y}^{m}[/tex]>?

if not, how would i go about calculating <[tex]\tilde{p}^{n}\tilde{y}^{m}[/tex] >?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
In general, they are not the same. The expectation value of an operator [itex]\hat A[/itex] is
[tex]\int \Psi^*(x) \hat A(x) \Psi(x) \, \mathrm{d}x[/tex]
where [itex]\Psi(x)[/itex] is your wavefunction (assuming you are talking QM here).
In this case,
[tex]\int \Psi^*(x) \hat p^n \hat y^m \Psi(x) \, \mathrm{d}x<br /> \neq<br /> \left( \int \Psi^*(x) \hat p^n \Psi(x) \, \mathrm{d}x \right)<br /> \left( \int \Psi^*(x) \hat y^m \Psi(x) \, \mathrm{d}x \right).[/tex]
You could write out [itex]\hat p[/itex] in the position basis and work out what [itex]\hat p^n(y^m \Psi)[/itex] looks like.
 

Similar threads

Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
Replies
1
Views
4K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
0
Views
665
Replies
10
Views
4K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
Replies
1
Views
4K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K