Dear All:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Given two random variables X and Y, if I have established the relationship E[X]>=E[Y], does this necessarily imply that X must have a first-order-stochastic dominance over Y?

I know that first order stochastic dominance implies that the mean value of the dominating random variable be greater than the other variable but I am trying to find out whether the reverse must hold.

Thanks in advance.

Regards.

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Expected Value and First Order Stochastic Dominance

Loading...

Similar Threads - Expected Value Order | Date |
---|---|

Best goodness of fit test for low expected values | Jun 16, 2015 |

Question concerning the expected position of an object | Jan 25, 2015 |

Solving expected value problem with logistic function | Feb 6, 2014 |

How do we calculate the expected value E(X) for a density function? | Jul 22, 2013 |

Express moment / expectation value in lower order expectation values | Jan 6, 2012 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**