Explaining a coin toss to a friend problem

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A coin toss has a 50% chance of landing heads, and when flipping twice with at least one head, the probability of both tosses being heads is 1 in 3. The reasoning involves recognizing that with at least one head, the scenario where both tosses are tails is eliminated, leaving three possible outcomes: HH, HT, and TH. The confusion arises when considering that one head is guaranteed, leading some to mistakenly believe the odds are 1 in 2. To clarify, it is helpful to list all possible outcomes and eliminate the impossible scenario, reinforcing that only one of the three outcomes results in both heads. This explanation effectively demonstrates the correct probability to the friend.
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I'm currently having trouble trying to explain a coin toss and it's probability to a friend.

The question is

A coin toss has a 50% chance to land heads. You flip the count twice. At least one of the tosses lands a head. What is the probability of both tosses being heads?

Now the correct answer is 1 in 3. For the following reasons.

Ok first coin is flipped, it has 2 options, heads or tails.

We know that we will get at least 1 heads in these 2 coin tosses.

First coin flipped gives us tails, so we know that the next coin has to be heads.

First coin is flipped but it gives us heads. Now we don't know if this was the one that was suppose to be heads or not. We flip the 2nd coin, it can either give us heads or tails. The 2nd coin gives us tails.

First coin is flipped giving us heads, second coin is flipped, it gives us heads.

Note how there are 3 outcomes, if we only know that one of the flips will give us a heads. So we have a 1 in 3 odds that when both coins are flipped, we get heads for both.

This is word for word of how I explain it to him. Now he is thinking that the answer is a 1 in 2 chance. Because we know one coin is going to be 100% heads. So you can just leave that one toss out, and just have the 2nd toss, which would be a 1 in 2 odds.

So I ask that someone might be able to help me to explain this to my friend in some easy more understandable way. Since he seems set in his answer.
 
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This is my way of solving the problem.

When you roll two dice, there are four possible scenarios:
1)HH
2)HT
3)TH
4)TT

Since at least one is a head, scenario 4 is rejected. Hence only 3 scenarios are possible. Only one is both heads (HH), so the probability is 1 in 3.
 
To me your explanation is simple enough so I think you should tell your friend that a head is also possible on the 1st toss,we are 100% sure of getting atleast 1 head,not where that head will be i.e. 1st or 2nd toss.
 
I like dalcde's answer, as it is very concise.

ask your friend to list the possible outcomes on a piece of paper, then tell him to get rid of the one that can't happen => 3 choices remain.
 
If there are an infinite number of natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and... then that must mean that there are not only infinite infinities, but an infinite number of those infinities. and an infinite number of those...

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