- #1
Glurth
- 59
- 0
The FAQ states:
"In our universe, we observe that space is not a vacuum, and tidal forces are nearly zero on cosmological distance scales (because the universe is homogeneous on these scales). "
We observe Dark Energy. How do we know this accelerated recession of distant galaxies, which is related to distance to those galaxies, is NOT due to some kind of non-zero tidal forces?
Does dark energy behave differently from the way we would expect tidal forces to behave? (At least in terms of how much the distance between two objects effects the rate at which they separate: is the relationship exponential, linear, etc..)
I'm not clear on why the homogeneousness of the universe implies there are no tidal-forces. I could see why it would imply there are no non-homogeneous tidal forces, but couldn't it still have a homogenous (or nearly so) tidal force throughout the entire universe?
I guess this is more of a LANGUAGE question. Regarding the homogeneousness of the universe: haven't we observed that the universe was denser in the past? Why doesn't this imply it is actually non-homogeneous? (Is it simply because there was a smooth, even transition between these two states everywhere?)
"In our universe, we observe that space is not a vacuum, and tidal forces are nearly zero on cosmological distance scales (because the universe is homogeneous on these scales). "
We observe Dark Energy. How do we know this accelerated recession of distant galaxies, which is related to distance to those galaxies, is NOT due to some kind of non-zero tidal forces?
Does dark energy behave differently from the way we would expect tidal forces to behave? (At least in terms of how much the distance between two objects effects the rate at which they separate: is the relationship exponential, linear, etc..)
I'm not clear on why the homogeneousness of the universe implies there are no tidal-forces. I could see why it would imply there are no non-homogeneous tidal forces, but couldn't it still have a homogenous (or nearly so) tidal force throughout the entire universe?
I guess this is more of a LANGUAGE question. Regarding the homogeneousness of the universe: haven't we observed that the universe was denser in the past? Why doesn't this imply it is actually non-homogeneous? (Is it simply because there was a smooth, even transition between these two states everywhere?)