Fermat's/Euler Problem: Proving Equivalence Modulo pq and ab

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving two mathematical equivalences involving Fermat's Little Theorem and Euler's Theorem. The first equivalence, \( p^{(q-1)} + q^{(p-1)} \equiv 1 \; (\!\!\!\!\!\! \mod \, pq) \), relies on the properties of prime numbers and their relative primality. The second equivalence, \( a^{\phi(b)} + b^{\phi(a)} \equiv 1 \; (\!\!\!\!\!\! \mod \, ab) \), utilizes Euler's Totient Function, \(\phi(n)\), to establish a relationship between integers a and b. Both problems highlight the interconnectedness of number theory concepts.

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  • Basic concepts of modular arithmetic
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pacdude9
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I've got a pair of (related) problems that are keeping me stumped. The two problems they are asking me to prove are:

p^{(q-1)} + q^{(p - 1)} \equiv 1 \; (\!\!\!\!\!\! \mod \, pq)

a^{\phi(b)} + b^{\phi(a)} \equiv 1<br /> \; (\!\!\!\!\!\! \mod \, ab)

Where \phi(n) is Euler's Totient Function.

I know that these are similar, as the second problem is using Euler's Theorem, a generalization of Fermat's Little Theorem, I just can't seem to figure them out.
 
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for the first one, see if this helps...

By Fermat's Theorem (assuming that p and p are relatively prime...) we have
q^p=qmod p. We can cancel q from both sides since gcd(q,p) = 1, so q^{(p-1)} = 1 (mod p). Also p^{(q-1)} = 0 (mod p) we get

p^{(q-1)} + q^{(p-1)} = 1 (mod p)

can you go from there?
 
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