Find the error in the following argument

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SUMMARY

The discussion addresses the misconception that the reflexive property is redundant in the axioms for an equivalence relation. It clarifies that while symmetry and transitivity can imply reflexivity under certain conditions, they do not universally guarantee it. A counterexample is provided using the set A = {1, 2, 3} with the relation ∼ = {(1,1), (1,2), (2,1), (2,2)}, which is symmetric and transitive but not reflexive, as it lacks the pair (3,3).

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Find the error in the following argument by providing a counterexample. “The reflexive property is redundant in the axioms for an equivalence relation. If x ∼ y, then y ∼ x by the symmetric property. Using the transitive property, we can deduce that x ∼ x.”
 
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Good problem. This is the "physicist's argument" (no offense topsquark) of the reflexivity principle being redundant, as I was told quite a time ago when I was learning algebra.

The problem with the argument is that you might not have "enough wiggle room" to apply reflexivity. What if the equivalence class of $x$ under $\sim$ is a singleton? How can you say $x \sim y \implies y \sim x$ where there is no such $y$ other than $x$?

Try to think about it a bit. It's quite puzzling for beginners.
 
The problem with this, is that reflexive means (for a relation $\sim$ on a set $A$):

"For ALL $x \in A$, we have $x \sim x$"

Now certainly if there EXISTS some $y$ with $x \sim y$, we can use symmetry and transitivity to show $x \sim x$. But there is no reason to suppose that we can do this for ANY (thus every) $x \in A$, that is, that such a $y$ even exists.

For example, let $A = \{1,2,3\}$, and let:

$\sim \ = \{(1,1),(1,2),(2,1),(2,2)\}$.

This relation is symmetric, and transitive, but it is not reflexive, since it does not contain $(3,3)$-in fact, NO element of $A$ is related to $3$.
 

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