Find the linear transformation

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The discussion centers on determining whether the linear transformation f: R^2 → R^2 defined by f(x,y) = (x+y, y) is an isomorphism. It is established that f is injective and surjective, thus confirming it is an isomorphism. The inverse function f^(-1) can be derived by solving the equations x + y = u and y = v for x and y in terms of u and v. Examples of linear maps that are not isomorphisms, such as f(x,y) = (x, 0), are discussed to illustrate the concepts of injectivity and surjectivity. The conversation also touches on the significance of the kernel and dimensions in determining the properties of linear transformations.
  • #31
Dick said:
dim(f(U))=dim(U)-dim(kernel(f)). No, that's not different from what Halls is saying. It's not a definition, it's a theorem.

kernel(f)?
Is it kernel(f(U))?
Why dim(kerF)=1
f(x,y)=(x,0)
(x,0)=(0,0)
x=0
so kerF=0
 
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  • #32
(0,1) is in the kernel of f.
 
  • #33
Dick said:
(0,1) is in the kernel of f.

How did you find it?
 
  • #34
It found me. f(0,1)=(0,0). I just looked at the definition of f.
 
  • #35
Dick said:
It found me. f(0,1)=(0,0). I just looked at the definition of f.

Sorry, and how will you find it for my example?
f(x,y)=(x+y,y)??
(x+y,y)=(0,0)
or?
 
  • #36
(x+y,y)=(0,0) means x+y=0 and y=0. Solve those linear equations. What's the solution?
 
  • #37
Dick said:
(x+y,y)=(0,0) means x+y=0 and y=0. Solve those linear equations. What's the solution?

yes
x=0
y=0
so the kernel is 0.

I am saying that for (x,0)
(x,0)=(0,0)
so the kernel is 0
cos x=0
 
  • #38
If you are saying for f(x,y)=(x,0) that the kernel is (0,0), then you are wrong. Yes, the equations you get are x=0 and 0=0. There's no y in those equations. That means y can be anything.
 
  • #39
Dick said:
If you are saying for f(x,y)=(x,0) that the kernel is (0,0), then you are wrong. Yes, the equations you get are x=0 and 0=0. There's no y in those equations. That means y can be anything.

R2 tells me that there should be 2 variables, that's why, right?
can I write (x,0), just like x?
in that case R2-> R, right?
 
  • #40
Physicsissuef said:
R2 tells me that there should be 2 variables, that's why, right?
can I write (x,0), just like x?
in that case R2-> R, right?

You want to figure out for what values of x and y that f(x,y)=(x,0)=(0,0). x=0 and y=anything. Period.
 
  • #41
Can I write x instead of (x,0)
so f(x,y)=x instead of f(x,y)=(x,0)?
 
  • #42
You can write anything you please. As long as you know f(x,y)=x and f(x,y)=(x,0) are two different linear maps. Their 'codomains' are different.
 
  • #43
Dick said:
You can write anything you please. As long as you know f(x,y)=x and f(x,y)=(x,0) are two different linear maps. Their 'codomains' are different.

and f(x,0)=(x,0)
f(0,y)=(0,y)
Is not correct right? (about f(x,y)=(x,0) )
it is correct that
f(x,0)=(x,0)
f(0,y)=(0,0)
right?
 
  • #44
Yes, that's right.
 
  • #45
and dim(f(U))=dim(kerf), just in this case, or always??
 
  • #46
Just in this case. Not always. If f(x,y,z)=(x,0,0), dim(f(U))=1 and dim(ker(f))=2.
 
  • #47
Dick said:
Just in this case. Not always. If f(x,y,z)=(x,0,0), dim(f(U))=1 and dim(ker(f))=2.
Ok, thank you very much for the help. I appreciate your efforts to help me. Thanks again.
 

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