Find the Taylor series of a function

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The discussion focuses on finding the Taylor series for the function f(x) = 1/(2 - x)^2, which is equivalent to a Maclaurin series since it is centered at 0. Initial attempts to derive the series involved using power series and derivatives, but some participants noted mistakes in convergence and calculations. The correct answer was identified as option (a), and it was suggested that using the binomial series or differentiating a related function could also yield the desired series. The conversation emphasizes the importance of convergence and alternative methods for deriving the series.
songoku
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Homework Statement
Find the Taylor series of ##f(x) = \frac{1}{(2 - x)^2}## centered at 0
##a. f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{n+1}{2^{n+2}} x^n##
##b. f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n \frac{n+1}{2^{n+2}} x^n##
##c. f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{n}{2^{n}} x^n##
##d. f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{n+1}{2^{n+1}} x^n##
##e. f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{n+2}{2^{n}} x^n##
Relevant Equations
Taylor series
Maclaurin series
Standard power series
Because the Taylor series centered at 0, it is same as Maclaurin series. My attempts:

1st attempt

<br /> \begin{align}<br /> \frac{1}{1-x} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty x^n\\<br /> \\<br /> \frac{1}{x} = \frac{1}{1-(1-x)} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (1-x)^n\\<br /> \\<br /> \frac{1}{x^2} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (1-x^2)^n\\<br /> \\<br /> \frac{1}{(2-x)^2} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (1-(2-x)^2)^n\\<br /> \\<br /> = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (-x^2 + 4x -3)^n\\<br /> \\<br /> = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n (x-3)^n (x-1)^n<br /> \end{align}<br />

Then how to continue?2nd attempt: I do the derivative manually and put it into Maclaurin series formula and I end up with:
## f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(n+1)!}{2^{(n+2)}} x^n##

Is my answer on 2nd attempt wrong? Or the choices of the question are wrong?

Thanks
 
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songoku said:
Problem Statement: Find the Taylor series of ##f(x) = \frac{1}{(2 - x)^2}## centered at 0
##a. f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{n+1}{2^{n+2}} x^n##
##b. f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n \frac{n+1}{2^{n+2}} x^n##
##c. f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{n}{2^{n}} x^n##
##d. f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{n+1}{2^{n+1}} x^n##
##e. f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{n+2}{2^{n}} x^n##
Relevant Equations: Taylor series
Maclaurin series
Standard power series

2nd attempt: I do the derivative manually and put it into Maclaurin series formula and I end up with:
## f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(n+1)!}{2^{(n+2)}} x^n##

Is my answer on 2nd attempt wrong? Or the choices of the question are wrong?

Thanks

You're quite close. You probably just made a mistake somewhere.

PS what about using the binomial series?
 
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PeroK said:
You're quite close. You probably just made a mistake somewhere.

PS what about using the binomial series?
I found my mistake. The answer is (a)

How about my first method? Can it be continued to get the answer or it is just wrong from the beginning?

Thanks
 
songoku said:
I found my mistake. The answer is (a)

How about my first method? Can it be continued to get the answer or it is just wrong from the beginning?

Thanks

I can't see immediately where it goes wrong, but if you try ##x = 0## you have a divergent series. I suspect there are issues with convergence somewhere along the way.
 
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PeroK said:
I can't see immediately where it goes wrong, but if you try ##x = 0## you have a divergent series. I suspect there are issues with convergence somewhere along the way.
Is it correct if I say like this: since I derive the series from ##\frac{1}{1-x}## then x ≠ 1. I used the previous series to find the series of ##\frac{1}{x}## so x ≠ 0. Finally, I used it again to get series for ##\frac{1}{(2-x)^2}## so x ≠ 2.
In total, x can not be 0, 1, and 2?

Thanks
 
songoku said:
Is it correct if I say like this: since I derive the series from ##\frac{1}{1-x}## then x ≠ 1. I used the previous series to find the series of ##\frac{1}{x}## so x ≠ 0. Finally, I used it again to get series for ##\frac{1}{(2-x)^2}## so x ≠ 2.
In total, x can not be 0, 1, and 2?

Thanks

I'm not so sure. The series must converge for ##x = 0##. You've got problems for ##x > 1## as well.
 
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PeroK said:
I'm not so sure. The series must converge for ##x = 0##. You've got problems for ##x > 1## as well.
Ok, I'll think about it again. Thank you for the help Perok
 
songoku said:
Problem Statement: Find the Taylor series of ##f(x) = \frac{1}{(2 - x)^2}## centered at 0
If you notice that ##\frac d{dx}\left(\frac{-1}{x - 2}\right) = \frac 1 {(x - 2)^2} = \frac 1 {(2 - x)^2}##, you can find the Maclaurin series for ##g(x) = \frac {-1}{x - 2}##, and then differentiate w.r.t. x, giving you the series for the function in your problem. I suspect that this is what the author of the problem had in mind.

I believe @PeroK's hint in post #2 is related to this idea.
 
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Mark44 said:
If you notice that ##\frac d{dx}\left(\frac{-1}{x - 2}\right) = \frac 1 {(x - 2)^2} = \frac 1 {(2 - x)^2}##, you can find the Maclaurin series for ##g(x) = \frac {-1}{x - 2}##, and then differentiate w.r.t. x, giving you the series for the function in your problem. I suspect that this is what the author of the problem had in mind.

I believe @PeroK's hint in post #2 is related to this idea.

Thanks Mark44
 
  • #10
Mark44 said:
If you notice that ##\frac d{dx}\left(\frac{-1}{x - 2}\right) = \frac 1 {(x - 2)^2} = \frac 1 {(2 - x)^2}##, you can find the Maclaurin series for ##g(x) = \frac {-1}{x - 2}##, and then differentiate w.r.t. x, giving you the series for the function in your problem. I suspect that this is what the author of the problem had in mind.

I believe @PeroK's hint in post #2 is related to this idea.

I rewrote the function as

##f(x) = \frac14 (1 - \frac{x}{2})^{-2}##

and used a binomial expansion.
 
  • #11
"More than one way to skin a cat ..."
 

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