Find Wave Function given <x>, sigmax, <p>

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friedymeister
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Homework Statement


Come up with a wave function Psi[x] that satisfies the given known values:
<x>=-1
sigma x = 1
<p> = h bar

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


So far I have this equation, which satisfies <x>, <p>, but not sigma x.
1/[Pi]^(1/4) E^(i (x + 2)) E^(-(1/2) (x + 1)^2)
 
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What does sigma x refer to?
 
Sigma x is the standard deviation of x.
 
Remember that the standard deviation of a gaussian is controlled by dividing the x^2 term by sigma^2.
 
Try looking at the below wikipedia article on Gaussian or Normal distributions for a good way to create a wavepacket with a given uncertainty ([tex]\sigma_x[/tex]) and position [tex]\langle x\rangle[/tex].

This wikipedia link should give an adequate definition:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Normal_distribution
 
For some reason, I just can't find the function.

I don't know how I could make a wave function that could possibly have a standard distribution of 1 and an expected value of -1, graphically.
 
A Gaussian wavefunction has the form
[tex]A\exp\left(-\frac{\left(x - x_0\right)^2}{2\sigma^2}\right)[/tex]
where A is the normalization, [tex]x_0[/tex] is the center of the Gaussian, and [tex]\sigma[/tex] is the standard deviation.

Try calculating
[tex]\sigma = \sqrt{\langle x^2\rangle - \langle x\rangle^2}[/tex] to convince yourself of this property of Gaussians and then see if you can put the momentum part into the total wavefunction.
 
I have tried this, the only problem is that the function must also have the momentum, -h bar, which requires another exponential term, exp(-i x).

Also, sigma^2 would be 1, and that would have the form A * exp^(-i x)*exp^((-(x+1)^2)/2) where A = 1/ pi^(1/4)

Because of the first exponential function, exp^(-i x), the standard deviation becomes 1/rad(2).

How can I get around this?
 
I'm unsure how you're getting the standard deviation to be [tex]1/\sqrt{2}[/tex] because of the complex exponential part. I'm assuming rad(2) is the square root.

Don't forget that to calculate the expectation value you use the complex conjugate on the left, e.g.
[tex]\langle x \rangle = \int \psi^{*}\left(x\right)x\psi\left(x\right)\,dx[/tex].
So the complex exponential times its complex conjugate should just give 1 inside the integral and not affect the expectation value of [tex]x[/tex] and [tex]x^2[/tex].

One more thing to consider, when you multiply two Gaussians together you get another Gaussian:

[tex]A\exp\left(-\frac{\left(x-x_0\right)^2}{2\sigma^2}\right) * A\exp\left(-\frac{\left(x-x_0\right^2}{2\sigma^2}\right) = A^2\exp\left(-\frac{\left(x - x_0\right)^2}{\sigma^2}\right)[/tex]
This about this relates the standard deviation of [tex]\psi\left(x\right)[/tex] to [tex]\psi^{*}\left(x\right)\psi\left(x\right)[/tex].
 
Yeah, that's how I've been getting <x>.

It must the be exp^(i x) that's causing the problems. The x in the exponent must be messing something up.

How can I get around this?
 
I'm pretty sure the complex exponential should cancel in the calculation of the x and x^2 expectation values.

Remember what I mentioned about the product of Gaussians. This means that while the standard deviation of [tex]\psi\left(x\right)[/tex] might be [tex]\sigma[/tex] the standard deviation of [tex]|\psi\left(x\right)|^2[/tex] will be [tex]\sigma/\sqrt{2}[/tex]...
 
Well, sigma x comes out to 1/rad(2) for the sqrt((integral from -inf to +inf of Psi* x^2 Psi) - (integral from -inf to +inf of Psi* x Psi)^2).

How would I change the wave function to make sigma x = 1 then?
 
Try changing the value of [tex]sigma[/tex] in the Gaussian part of the wavefunction and see how that changes what you calculate [tex]\sigma_x[/tex]. See if can figure it out own your own exactly what you need to change then.
Also, remember the correct normalization of a Gaussian involves [tex]\sigma[/tex] as well. It should be in the wikipedia article.
 
Oh that's awesome. Thanks, I changed 1/2 to 1/4 and then renormalized the wave function, and everything works perfectly.

Thanks a lot.
 
Glad I could help :)