How to calculate a wave function in time t

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating a wave function at a specific time using quantum mechanics principles. The original poster attempts to apply a time evolution equation for wave functions but encounters discrepancies in the results, particularly regarding the conversion to momentum space.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the application of the time evolution equation and question the necessity of converting the wave function to momentum space. They discuss the implications of using the Hamiltonian operator and the conditions under which the exponential operator can be simplified.

Discussion Status

Some participants provide insights into the correct application of the Hamiltonian and the role of eigenstates in the time evolution of wave functions. There is an ongoing examination of the differences in results and the factors involved in the calculations, with no explicit consensus reached.

Contextual Notes

Participants note potential typos and misunderstandings in the equations presented, as well as the importance of normalization in wave functions. The discussion reflects a focus on the mathematical foundations of quantum mechanics without resolving the initial confusion regarding the wave function calculations.

Haorong Wu
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Homework Statement
Suppose ##\psi _p \left ( x \right ) =\frac 1 {\sqrt {2 \pi \hbar}} e^{ip_0 x/ \hbar}##, and ##H=\frac {p^2} {2m}##. The energy of the state is ##\frac {p_0^2} {2m}##. if ##\psi \left ( x,0 \right ) = \psi _p \left ( x \right )##, then calculate ##\psi \left ( x , t \right)##.
Relevant Equations
##\psi \left ( x, t \right ) = e^{-iEt/\hbar} \psi \left ( x,0 \right )##
I use the equation
##\psi \left ( x, t \right ) = e^{-iEt/\hbar} \psi \left ( x,0 \right )## to calculate ##\psi \left ( x , t \right)##, and the result is ##\psi \left ( x , t \right) = \frac 1 {\sqrt {2 \pi \hbar}} exp \left [ \frac {ip_0 x} {\hbar} - \frac {i p^2 t} {2m \hbar} \right ]##.

However, it is wrong, and in the solution, first, the wave function is converted to ##\phi \left ( p \right )=\frac 1 {\sqrt {2 \pi \hbar}} \int e^{ip_0 x /\hbar} e^{-ipx/\hbar} dx = \sqrt {2 \pi \hbar} \delta \left ( p-p_0 \right ) ##.
Then, ##\psi \left ( x , t \right) = \frac 1 {\sqrt {2 \pi \hbar}} \int \sqrt {2 \pi \hbar} e^{ipx/\hbar} \delta \left ( p-p_0 \right ) dp \cdot e^{-i E t /\hbar} = e^{i p_0 x /\hbar - iEt /\hbar}##.

There is a difference of a factor of ##\frac 1 {\sqrt {2 \pi \hbar}}##, and I am confusing why it has to be converted to ##\phi \left ( p \right ) ## first?

Thanks!
 
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Haorong Wu said:
Homework Equations: ##\psi \left ( x, t \right ) = e^{-iEt/\hbar} \psi \left ( x,0 \right )##
This is incorrect. The actual equation (for a time-independent Hamiltonian) is
$$\psi \left ( x, t \right ) = e^{-i \hat{H} t/\hbar} \psi \left ( x,0 \right )$$
It is only in the case where the exponential of the operator is acting on an eigenstate of that operator that you can replace the operator in the exponential by the corresponding eigenvalue.

This is why you have to go to momentum space, where ##\hat{H} \phi(p) = \frac{\hat{p}^2}{2m} \phi(p) = \frac{p^2}{2m}\phi(p)## (the last equality is the one where the momentum operator becomes "multiply by ##p##").
 
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DrClaude said:
This is incorrect. The actual equation (for a time-independent Hamiltonian) is
$$\psi \left ( x, t \right ) = e^{-i \hat{H} t/\hbar} \psi \left ( x,0 \right )$$
It is only in the case where the exponential of the operator is acting on an eigenstate of that operator that you can replace the operator in the exponential by the corresponding eigenvalue.

This is why you have to go to momentum space, where ##\hat{H} \phi(p) = \frac{\hat{p}^2}{2m} \phi(p) = \frac{p^2}{2m}\phi(p)## (the last equality is the one where the momentum operator becomes "multiply by ##p##").

Thanks, DrClaude.

Meanwhile, ##H \left | \psi _p \right > = \frac {- \hbar ^2 } {2m} \frac {d} {dx} \frac 1 {\sqrt {2 \pi \hbar}} e^{ip_0 x/ \hbar} = \frac {- \hbar ^2 } {2m} {\left ( \frac {ip_0} \hbar \right )}^2 \frac 1 {\sqrt {2 \pi \hbar}} e^{ip_0 x/ \hbar}=\frac {- p_0 ^2 } {2m} \frac 1 {\sqrt {2 \pi \hbar}} e^{ip_0 x/ \hbar}=\frac {- p_0 ^2 } {2m} \left | \psi _p \right > ##, then ## \left | \psi _p \right >## is a eigenstate of ##H##. So why ## \psi \left ( x, t \right ) = e^{-iEt/\hbar} \psi \left ( x,0 \right )## does not apply here?
 
Haorong Wu said:
Thanks, DrClaude.

Meanwhile, ##H \left | \psi _p \right > = \frac {- \hbar ^2 } {2m} \frac {d} {dx} \frac 1 {\sqrt {2 \pi \hbar}} e^{ip_0 x/ \hbar} = \frac {- \hbar ^2 } {2m} {\left ( \frac {ip_0} \hbar \right )}^2 \frac 1 {\sqrt {2 \pi \hbar}} e^{ip_0 x/ \hbar}=\frac {- p_0 ^2 } {2m} \frac 1 {\sqrt {2 \pi \hbar}} e^{ip_0 x/ \hbar}=\frac {- p_0 ^2 } {2m} \left | \psi _p \right > ##, then ## \left | \psi _p \right >## is a eigenstate of ##H##. So why ## \psi \left ( x, t \right ) = e^{-iEt/\hbar} \psi \left ( x,0 \right )## does not apply here?
Sorry, I hadn't paid attention to the particular wave function you were working with. (There is a typo in what you wrote: it should be ##d^2/dx^2##.) I was answering the second part of
Haorong Wu said:
There is a difference of a factor of ##\frac 1 {\sqrt {2 \pi \hbar}}##, and I am confusing why it has to be converted to ##\phi \left ( p \right ) ## first?
As for the first part, there is a typo in the answer. Norm is conserved and the normalization factor remains unchanged (notice that the only thing that happens with the time evolution is that the wave function changes its complex phase).
 
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