Finding Wavefunction with just the Hamiltonian

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the challenge of determining the wavefunction ##\Psi## from the Hamiltonian ##H## and the basis states ##c^{\dagger}_k c^{\dagger}_{-k} | 0 \rangle##. The user seeks to compute the coefficients ##f(k)## for a superposition of two-particle states but is informed that it is impossible to uniquely identify ##\Psi## without additional information. The conclusion is that infinite possibilities exist for ##f(k)##, each corresponding to a different state, thus making the task unfeasible with the given data.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics and wavefunctions
  • Familiarity with Hamiltonians in quantum systems
  • Knowledge of fermionic operators, specifically ##c^{\dagger}_k## and ##c_k##
  • Concept of superposition in quantum states
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the implications of Hamiltonians on wavefunctions in quantum mechanics
  • Learn about the role of basis states in quantum state representation
  • Explore the concept of superposition and its mathematical formulation
  • Investigate the uniqueness of wavefunctions given different Hamiltonians
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Quantum physicists, researchers in theoretical physics, and students studying quantum mechanics who are interested in the relationship between Hamiltonians and wavefunctions.

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Say I have a wavefunction that's a superposition of two-particle states:
\Psi = \int dk ~f(k) c^{\dagger}_k c^{\dagger}_{-k} | 0 \rangle
Here, ##|0\rangle## is the vacuum and ##c^{\dagger}_k c^{\dagger}_{-k} | 0 \rangle## represents a pair of fermions with momenta ##k,-k##. My goal is to solve for the coefficients ##f(k)## that determine the weight of each two-particle state in the superposition. Presumably, I could do this by computing
f(k) = \langle c_{-k}c_k | \Psi \rangle
However, I don't know what ##\Psi## is. I do know the form of the Hamiltonian for this system, though. Is it possible to find ##\Psi## if I only know the Hamiltonian ##H## and the form of the basis states ##c^{\dagger}_k c^{\dagger}_{-k} | 0 \rangle##? Thanks in advance! :)
 
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No, it's not possible without more information. There are infinite possibilities for ##f(k)## and each possibility corresponds to a different state.
 

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