Finding x(t) from a time dependant force

  • Thread starter Thread starter Keshroom
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Force Time
Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
12 replies · 5K views
Keshroom
Messages
25
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


A particle of mass m is subject to a force
F(t) = mae-bt

The initial position and speed are zero. Find x(t)

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



how would i begin to start this??
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
yeah...

this is what i tried

F(t) = m(dv/dt) e-bt

F(t)ebtdt = mdv

∫F(t)ebtdt = ∫mdv (with bounds t=0 to t=t, and v=0 to v=v)

∫F(t)ebtdt = mv (only integrating right side yields)

∫F(t)ebtdt = m(dx/dt)

[∫F(t)ebtdt]dt = dx (integrating both sides again)

∫ [∫F(t)ebtdt]dt = x(t)

is this correct? can it be simplified further?
 
Keshroom said:
A particle of mass m is subject to a force
F(t) = mae-bt
Keshroom said:
F(t) = m(dv/dt) e-bt

You mean "a" is the acceleration?

No, that makes no sense.

If F(t) is the force, and m is the mass, then F(t) = ma,

so F(t) cannot be mae-bt. :redface:

What exactly was the question? :confused:
 
I think I get it:

F(t)=ma(t) in which a(t)=a0e-bt

If you integrate you get:

v(t)=v0-(a0/b)e-bt

And again:

x(t)=x0+v0t+(a0/b2)e-bt

Since x0 and v0 are both zero.

x(t)=(a0/b2)e-bt
 
tiny-tim said:
You mean "a" is the acceleration?

No, that makes no sense.

If F(t) is the force, and m is the mass, then F(t) = ma,

so F(t) cannot be mae-bt. :redface:

What exactly was the question? :confused:

touche sir. That does not make sense. ahh i see now

Question was F(t) = ma0e-bt
now i know why it is a0

so in this case acceleration a = a0e-bt

but I'm still stuck! How do i get to x(t)?
 
Mathoholic! said:
I think I get it:

F(t)=ma(t) in which a(t)=a0e-bt

If you integrate you get:

v(t)=v0-(a0/b)e-bt

And again:

x(t)=x0+v0t+(a0/b2)e-bt

Since x0 and v0 are both zero.

x(t)=(a0/b2)e-bt

wait..you can just integrate like that without the dt on the right hand side?
 
Last edited:
Keshroom said:
wait..you can just integrate like that without the dt on the right hand side?

I simply skipped the integration steps :-p
 
Mathoholic! said:
I simply skipped the integration steps :-p

alright ill take your word for it!
 
Mathoholic! said:
I think I get it:

F(t)=ma(t) in which a(t)=a0e-bt

If you integrate you get:

v(t)=v0-(a0/b)e-bt

And again:

x(t)=x0+v0t+(a0/b2)e-bt

Since x0 and v0 are both zero.

x(t)=(a0/b2)e-bt

Please do not do the student's homework for them. That is against the PF rules.
 
berkeman said:
Please do not do the student's homework for them. That is against the PF rules.

I'm sorry, I let myself go :shy:
It won't happen again :approve:
 
haha yeah stop doing my homework for me!

Ok i figured it out properly

F(t) = ma0e-bt

m(dv/dt) = ma0e-bt

∫mdv = ∫ma0e-btdt (from v=0 to v=v and t=0 to t=t)

mv = m(a0e-bt)/-b

(dx/dt) = (a0e-bt)/-b

∫dx = ∫(a0e-bt)/-b dt (from x=0 to x=x and t=0 to t=t)

x(t) = a0e-bt/b2
 
Hi Keshroom! :smile:

Yes, that's fine except for the constants. :wink:

When you got down to here …
Keshroom said:
F(t) = ma0e-bt

m(dv/dt) = ma0e-bt

∫mdv = ∫ma0e-btdt (from v=0 to v=v and t=0 to t=t)

mv = m(a0e-bt)/-b

… although you said "from … t=0 to t=t", you didn't do it! :rolleyes:

(to put it another way: always check your solutions just by looking at them … does this satisfy the initial condition of v = 0 ? :wink:)

Try again. :smile: