First-order perturbation for a simple harmonic potential well

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the energy shift for an electron in a simple one-dimensional harmonic potential well using first-order perturbation theory. The original poster presents the ground state wavefunction and the perturbation potential, seeking guidance on how to handle the integral involved in the calculation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to compute the integral for the perturbation but encounters difficulties with the limits of integration and the resulting error function (ERF). Participants suggest different approaches to integration by parts, questioning the choices made for the variables involved.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the original poster's attempts, providing suggestions for integration techniques and discussing the implications of using the error function. There is a collaborative effort to refine the approach without reaching a definitive conclusion.

Contextual Notes

The problem is based on a past exam question, and there are constraints regarding the limits of integration, which are causing confusion in the calculations. The original poster notes the absence of specific integrals in the problem statement.

rwooduk
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Homework Statement


The ground state of the wavefunction for an electron in a simple one-dimensional harmonic potential well is

\Psi _{0}(x)= \left ( \frac{m\omega }{\pi \hbar} \right )^{1/4} exp(-\frac{m\omega x^{2}}{2\hbar})

By employing first-order perturbation theory calculate the energy shift E_{0}= \frac{\hbar \omega}{2} = 2eV caused by the time-independent perturbation.

V(x)= V_{0} x^{3}

with V0= 2eV and L= 5.10^-10 m

Homework Equations


E = E0 + V00

The Attempt at a Solution


The problem I'm having is that no integrals are given for this question (it's a past exam question). If I follow the process of finding V00

V_{00}= \left \langle \Psi _{0}| V_{0} x^{3} | \Psi _{0} \right \rangle

<br /> \int_{0}^{L} (\frac{m\omega }{\pi \hbar} \right ))^{1/2} x^{3} exp (-\frac{m\omega x^{2}}{\hbar})

if I integrate by parts between 0 and L I get an integral of exp (-y^2) which ordinarily between minus infinity and infinity would be root pi, but between 0 and L gives ERF. Any Ideas of what to do in this situation?
 
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You should be able to get that by integrating by parts, provided you choose the correct parts! What did you use?
 
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DrClaude said:
You should be able to get that by integrating by parts, provided you choose the correct parts! What did you use?

Using \int u dv = uv - \int vdu

I set u = x^3 in order to reduce it to a lower power of x (and continue to so with the next by parts integrals) and dv = exp (-ax^2) where a is a constant.

The problem is when I integrate with 0 to L limits using substitution of y^2, it comes out as ERF.

http://www.integral-calculator.com/#expr=e^(-y^2)&intvar=y&ubound=l&lbound=0

Thanks for the reply.
 
Try ##u = x^2##.
 
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DrClaude said:
Try ##u = x^2##.

thanks, yes that's what I did but this gives an exponential of a square for dv, which when I integrate with 0 to L limits using substitution, namely exp (-y^2), it comes out as ERF.
 
rwooduk said:
thanks, yes that's what I did but this gives an exponential of a square for dv, which when I integrate with 0 to L limits using substitution, namely exp (-y^2), it comes out as ERF.
If you set ##u = x^2##, then ##dv = x e^{-a x^2} dx##, which can be easily integrated.
 
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DrClaude said:
If you set ##u = x^2##, then ##dv = x e^{-a x^2} dx##, which can be easily integrated.

ahhhh, that's a clever little trick! i see now, many thanks for your help!

TeethWhitener said:
ERF is the error function: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Error_function

it's okay, I've got it now, but thanks!
 

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