Flux-flux correlation function under Feynman's path integral

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The discussion focuses on calculating the quantum mechanical rate ($\kappa$) in the golden-rule approximation for two linear potential energy surfaces using the flux-flux correlation function ($C_{ff}(t)$). The proposed method involves using Feynman's path integral formalism, with the integrand expressed as a trace involving the Hamiltonian and flux operators. The challenge arises in evaluating the integrals for $C_{ff}(t)$, particularly regarding convergence with imaginary arguments for time. The flux operator is clarified as representing transitions between two electronic states, emphasizing the distinction between non-adiabatic and adiabatic cases. The final goal is to derive a rate expression that reflects the dynamics of the system accurately.
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This is a chemically inspired problem, but the path is fully quantum mechanics and a bunch of integrals.

How does one calculate fully quantum mechanical rate ($\kappa$) in the golden-rule approximation for two linear potential energy surfaces?

Attempt:

Miller (83) proposes $$\kappa=\int{Tr[\exp{(-\beta\hat{H})}\hat{F}\exp{(-i\hat{H}t/\hbar)}\hat{F}\exp{(i\hat{H}t/\hbar)}]}dt$$

Where integrand is simply the flux-flux correlation function: $C_{ff}(t)$. Which can be calculated under Feynman's path integral formalism. My attempt (which is in vain) at calculating $C_{ff}(t)$ is as follows:

$$C_{ff}(t)=Tr[\exp{(-\beta\hat{H})}\hat{F}\exp{(-i\hat{H}t/\hbar)}\hat{F}\exp{(i\hat{H}t/\hbar)}]$$

$$Tr[\exp{(-\beta\frac{\hat{H}}{2})}\hat{F}\exp{(-\beta\frac{\hat{H}}{2})}\exp{(-i\hat{H}t/\hbar)}\hat{F}\exp{(i\hat{H}t/\hbar)}]$$

By cyclicly permuting the operators we reach at:

$$Tr[\exp{(i\hat{H}t/\hbar)}\exp{(-\beta\frac{\hat{H}}{2})}\hat{F}\exp{(-\beta\frac{\hat{H}}{2})}\exp{(-i\hat{H}t/\hbar)}\hat{F}]$$

The Boltzmann operator and quantum mechanical propagator can be combined as follows:

$$Tr[\exp{\hat{H}(\frac{it}{\hbar}-\frac{\beta}{2})}\hat{F}\exp{\hat{H}(\frac{-it}{\hbar}-\frac{\beta}{2})}\hat{F}]$$

In the golden-rule (non-adiabatic) case, we have two electronic states 0 and 1. So F is simply a projection operator. Hence one can obtain:

$$Tr[\exp{\hat{H_0}(\frac{it}{\hbar}-\frac{\beta}{2})}\exp{\hat{H_1}(\frac{-it}{\hbar}-\frac{\beta}{2})}]$$

This basically is kernel corresponding to two potential energy surfaces $V_0$ and $V_1$. For trajectory starting at $x_a$ and ending at $x_b$, we have

$$C_{ff}(t)=\int{\int{K_0(x_a,x_b,\frac{it}{\hbar}-\frac{\beta}{2})K_1(x_b,x_a,\frac{-it}{\hbar}-\frac{\beta}{2})}}dx_adx_b$$

For a linear potential energy surfaces (PES), where my PES looks as follows:

$$V_0=k_0 x$$

$$V_1=k_1 x$$

My kernels are:

$$K_0=\sqrt{\frac{m}{2\pi t_0}}\exp{(-S_0)}$$

$$K_1=\sqrt{\frac{m}{2\pi t_1}}\exp{(-S_1)}$$

$S's$ correspond to action which is:

$$S_n(x_a,x_b,t_n)=\frac{m(x_a-x_b)^2}{2 t_n}-\frac{(x_a+x_b)k_nt_n}{2}-\frac{k_n^2t_n^3}{24m}$$

The problem is the integral for flux flux correlation function doesn't seem to be converging with the imaginary argument for $t$'s. I am trying to integrate w.r.t $x_a$, $x_b$ and $t$ from -Inf to +Inf. My final answer for rate should look something like this:

$$\exp{\frac{k_0^2k_1^2\hbar^2\beta^3}{24m(k_0-k_1)^2}}$$

Is it a gaussian integral with respect to $x_a$ and $x_b$? One has to be careful because there is also an imaginary parts in the exponent. How does one reach the final answer for rate with those integrals? Really confused! Any help is appreciated.
 
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So ##\hat{F}=\frac{1}{2} \{p,\delta(x)\}##?
 
DrDu said:
So ##\hat{F}=\frac{1}{2} \{p,\delta(x)\}##?

Nope! F is just flux operator from reactant to product ##(|0><1|-|1><0|)##. This is for my case (or non-adiabatic case). However, in adiabatic case it is ##(p \delta(x-s)+\delta(x-s) p)##. But I am mainly interested in non-adiabatic case, where there are two electronic states. Basically, in adiabatic case, there is one potential energy surface, and for non-adiabatic case there are two potential energy surfaces.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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