For which values of a does this series converge?

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The series \(\sum \frac{(n!)^2}{(an)!}\) converges for values of \(a\) greater than a specific threshold, as established through the application of Stirling's formula. Negative integers for \(a\) are invalid due to the non-existence of negative factorials. When \(a\) is 0 or 1, the limit approaches infinity, indicating divergence. The discussion concludes that there exists a positive value of \(a\) beyond which the series converges.

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Homework Statement



For which values of a does this series converge?

\sum (n!)^2/(an)!


The Attempt at a Solution



I know a cannot be a negative integer because you cannot have a negative factorial.

If a is 0, then it's limit is infinity. ie. lim (n!)^2/ 0 = infinity

If a is +1, then lim cn+1/cn = ((n+1)!)^2/(n+1)! x n!/(n!)^2

= lim (n+1)^2/(n+1) = lim (n+1)/1 = infinity


For the series to converge it's limit from n to infinity must be equal to 0 right? So is there any value of a where it converges, or is my math wrong?
 
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ziggie125 said:
[/PHP]

Homework Statement



For which values of a does this series converge?

\sum (n!)^2/(an)!


The Attempt at a Solution



I know a cannot be a negative integer because you cannot have a negative factorial.

If a is 0, then it's limit is infinity. ie. lim (n!)^2/ 0 = infinity

If a is +1, then lim cn+1/cn = ((n+1)!)^2/(n+1)! x n!/(n!)^2

= lim (n+1)^2/(n+1) = lim (n+1)/1 = infinity


For the series to converge it's limit from n to infinity must be equal to 0 right? So is there any value of a where it converges, or is my math wrong?

If a = 0, 0! = 1
 
thx. The limit is still infinity though.
 
Try using Stirling's formula. I think you'll see then that the series does converge as long as a is greater than some number.
 

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