For which values of a does this series converge?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence of the series \(\sum \frac{(n!)^2}{(an)!}\), with participants exploring the values of \(a\) that affect convergence.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of \(a\) being a negative integer and the behavior of the series as \(a\) approaches 0 or 1. There are questions about the limit of the series as \(n\) approaches infinity and whether any values of \(a\) allow for convergence.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with some participants questioning the calculations and assumptions made regarding the limits. A suggestion to use Stirling's formula has been made, indicating a potential direction for further exploration.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that \(a\) cannot be a negative integer due to the nature of factorials, and there is uncertainty about the convergence behavior for specific values of \(a\).

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[/PHP]

Homework Statement



For which values of a does this series converge?

\sum (n!)^2/(an)!


The Attempt at a Solution



I know a cannot be a negative integer because you cannot have a negative factorial.

If a is 0, then it's limit is infinity. ie. lim (n!)^2/ 0 = infinity

If a is +1, then lim cn+1/cn = ((n+1)!)^2/(n+1)! x n!/(n!)^2

= lim (n+1)^2/(n+1) = lim (n+1)/1 = infinity


For the series to converge it's limit from n to infinity must be equal to 0 right? So is there any value of a where it converges, or is my math wrong?
 
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ziggie125 said:
[/PHP]

Homework Statement



For which values of a does this series converge?

\sum (n!)^2/(an)!


The Attempt at a Solution



I know a cannot be a negative integer because you cannot have a negative factorial.

If a is 0, then it's limit is infinity. ie. lim (n!)^2/ 0 = infinity

If a is +1, then lim cn+1/cn = ((n+1)!)^2/(n+1)! x n!/(n!)^2

= lim (n+1)^2/(n+1) = lim (n+1)/1 = infinity


For the series to converge it's limit from n to infinity must be equal to 0 right? So is there any value of a where it converges, or is my math wrong?

If a = 0, 0! = 1
 
thx. The limit is still infinity though.
 
Try using Stirling's formula. I think you'll see then that the series does converge as long as a is greater than some number.
 

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