MHB Fourier series without integration

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The discussion focuses on finding the Fourier series for the piecewise function h(θ) without performing integration. It is suggested that knowledge of the Fourier series for the functions f(θ) = θ and g(θ) is essential for this task. The relationship h(θ) = (1/2)f(θ) + (π/2)g(θ) is highlighted as a key to deriving the series. The resulting Fourier series is expressed as a sum of sine functions, specifically involving alternating terms and odd harmonics. This approach allows for the construction of the Fourier series efficiently without direct integration.
Dustinsfl
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Let
$$
h(\theta) = \begin{cases}
\frac{1}{2}(\theta + \pi), & 0 < \theta < \pi\\
0, & \theta = 0, \pm\pi\\
\frac{1}{2}(\theta - \pi), & -\pi < \theta < 0
\end{cases}
$$
How can I find the Fourier series without doing any integration?
 
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dwsmith said:
Let
$$
h(\theta) = \begin{cases}
\frac{1}{2}(\theta + \pi), & 0 < \theta < \pi\\
0, & \theta = 0, \pm\pi\\
\frac{1}{2}(\theta - \pi), & -\pi < \theta < 0
\end{cases}
$$
How can I find the Fourier series without doing any integration?
I think the only way to do this would be if you already happen to know the Fourier series for the functions $$ f(\theta) = \theta, \qquad g(\theta) = \begin{cases} 1 & (0 < \theta < \pi) \\ 0 & (\theta = 0, \pm\pi) \\ -1 & (-\pi < \theta < 0) \end{cases}.$$ Then you can use the fact that $h(\theta) = \frac12f(\theta) + \frac\pi2g(\theta)$ to write down the answer.
 
Opalg said:
I think the only way to do this would be if you already happen to know the Fourier series for the functions $$ f(\theta) = \theta, \qquad g(\theta) = \begin{cases} 1 & (0 < \theta < \pi) \\ 0 & (\theta = 0, \pm\pi) \\ -1 & (-\pi < \theta < 0) \end{cases}.$$ Then you can use the fact that $h(\theta) = \frac12f(\theta) + \frac\pi2g(\theta)$ to write down the answer.

Then
$$
h(\theta) = \sum\limits_{n = 1}^{\infty}(-1)^{n + 1}\frac{\sin n\theta}{n} + \frac{1}{2}\sum\limits_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{\sin(2n - 1)\theta}{2n - 1}.
$$
 
Last edited:
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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