Fourier transform formulation of the dirac delta

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the equivalence of two formulations of the Dirac delta function in the context of Fourier transforms. The first formulation, as presented on Wikipedia, is given by the integral \(\int_{-\infty}^\infty 1 \cdot e^{-i 2\pi f t}\,dt = \delta(f)\). The second formulation from the textbook by Robinett is \(\frac{1}{2\pi} \int_{-\infty}^\infty 1 \cdot e^{-i f t}\,dt = \delta(f)\). The equivalence is established through a change of variable where \(t' = 2\pi t\), leading to \(dt = \frac{dt'}{2\pi}\), thus justifying the factor of \(2\pi\) in the integral.

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I have seen two formulations of the dirac delta function with the Fourier transform. The one on wikipedia is
[tex]\int_{-\infty}^\infty 1 \cdot e^{-i 2\pi f t}\,dt = \delta(f)[/tex]

and the one in my textbook (Robinett) is

[tex]1/2\pi \int_{-\infty}^\infty 1 \cdot e^{-i f t}\,dt = \delta(f)[/tex]

I do not understand how they are equivalent? How can you just take the 2pi out of the integral?
 
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It's a simple change of variable: if [itex]t'=2\pi t[/itex], then [itex]dt=dt'/2\pi[/itex].
 

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