Fourier Transform: Proving $G(z)$ is an Entire Function

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that the Fourier transform \( G(z) = \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} e^{zt} g(t) dt \) is an entire function for a continuous function \( g: [-\pi, \pi] \to \mathbb{R} \). Participants emphasize the need to demonstrate that \( G(z) \) is differentiable at every point in \( \mathbb{C} \) and that it has no singularities. The proof involves showing that the limit \( \left|\frac{G(z)-G(z_0)}{z-z_0} - H(z_0)\right| \to 0 \) as \( z \to z_0 \), where \( H(z) = \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} t e^{zt} g(t) dt \). The discussion also touches on justifying the interchange of differentiation and integration.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Fourier transforms and their properties.
  • Familiarity with complex analysis, particularly entire functions.
  • Knowledge of differentiation under the integral sign.
  • Proficiency in epsilon-delta definitions of limits.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of entire functions in complex analysis.
  • Learn about differentiation under the integral sign and its conditions.
  • Explore the uniform convergence of series and integrals.
  • Investigate the ratio test for series convergence in the context of Fourier transforms.
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students of complex analysis, and anyone interested in the properties of Fourier transforms and their applications in analysis.

Dustinsfl
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Let $g:[-\pi,\pi]\to\mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function. Define the Fourier transform of $g$ as
$$
G(z)=\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{zt}g(t)dt, \quad \text{for all} \ z\in\mathbb{C}.
$$
Prove that $G(z)$ is an entire function.

That means $G$ has to have no singularities, but other than that I am lost. We have to continuous functions multiplied together but then what?
 
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dwsmith said:
Let $g:[-\pi,\pi]\to\mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function. Define the Fourier transform of $g$ as
$$
G(z)=\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{zt}g(t)dt, \quad \text{for all} \ z\in\mathbb{C}.
$$
Prove that $G(z)$ is an entire function.

That means $G$ has to have no singularities, but other than that I am lost. We have to continuous functions multiplied together but then what?
You want to show that $G(z)$ is differentiable at each point $z_0\in\mathbb{C}.$ If you differentiate $G(z)$ naively: $\displaystyle\frac d{dz}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{zt}g(t)\,dt$ (not worrying about how to justify slipping the differentiation operator past the integral sign), then you see that $G'(z_0)$ "ought" to be equal to $H(z_0)$, where $\displaystyle H(z) = \int_{-\pi}^{\pi}te^{zt}g(t)\,dt.$

To prove that that is indeed the case, go back to the definition of derivative and show that $$\left|\frac{G(z)-G(z_0)}{z-z_0} - H(z_0)\right| \to0\text{ as }z\to z_0.$$

That should be a reasonably straightforward exercise in epsilons and deltas, using the fact that $G$ is continuous, hence bounded, on $[-\pi,\pi].$
 
Opalg said:
You want to show that $G(z)$ is differentiable at each point $z_0\in\mathbb{C}.$ If you differentiate $G(z)$ naively: $\displaystyle\frac d{dz}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{zt}g(t)\,dt$ (not worrying about how to justify slipping the differentiation operator past the integral sign), then you see that $G'(z_0)$ "ought" to be equal to $H(z_0)$, where $\displaystyle H(z) = \int_{-\pi}^{\pi}te^{zt}g(t)\,dt.$

To prove that that is indeed the case, go back to the definition of derivative and show that $$\left|\frac{G(z)-G(z_0)}{z-z_0} - H(z_0)\right| \to0\text{ as }z\to z_0.$$

That should be a reasonably straightforward exercise in epsilons and deltas, using the fact that $G$ is continuous, hence bounded, on $[-\pi,\pi].$

When you differentiated G, why didn't you differentiate via the product? It appears as if you only differentiated e^{zt} and treated g(t) as a constant.

So I need to do:
Given $\epsilon > 0$.

$ \left|\frac{G(z)-G(z_0)}{z-z_0} - H(z_0)\right| < \epsilon \ \ \text{whenever} \ \ 0<|z - z_0|<\delta $
 
Last edited by a moderator:
dwsmith said:
When you differentiated G, why didn't you differentiate via the product? It appears as if you only differentiated e^{zt} and treated g(t) as a constant.
When you are differentiating with respect to $\color{red}z$, $g(t)$ is indeed a constant.
 
Opalg said:
When you are differentiating with respect to $\color{red}z$, $g(t)$ is indeed a constant.

I check that the C.R. equations are satisfied. Could that work as well?
 
Opalg said:
If you differentiate $G(z)$ naively: $\displaystyle\frac d{dz}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{zt}g(t)\,dt$ (not worrying about how to justify slipping the differentiation operator past the integral sign), then you see that $G'(z_0)$ "ought" to be equal to $H(z_0)$, where $\displaystyle H(z) = \int_{-\pi}^{\pi}te^{zt}g(t)\,dt.$

Why can we slip the differentiation operator past the integral sign?
 
dwsmith said:
Let $g:[-\pi,\pi]\to\mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function. Define the Fourier transform of $g$ as
$$
G(z)=\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{zt}g(t)dt, \quad \text{for all} \ z\in\mathbb{C}.
$$
Prove that $G(z)$ is an entire function.

That means $G$ has to have no singularities, but other than that I am lost. We have to continuous functions multiplied together but then what?

Ok so $e^{zt} = \sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(zt)^n}{n!}$.

Then
$$
G(z) = \int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(zt)^ng(t)}{n!}dt
$$

$e^{zt}$ converges uniformly on $[-\pi,\pi]$ so we can write
$$
G(z) = \sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\frac{(zt)^ng(t)}{n!}dt
$$

How can I perform the ratio test on this expression?
 
Last edited:

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