Fourier Transform: Proving $G(z)$ is an Entire Function

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the Fourier transform \( G(z) \) of a continuous function \( g \) defined on the interval \([-π, π]\) is an entire function. Participants explore the differentiability of \( G(z) \) and the conditions under which it can be shown to have no singularities.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants define the Fourier transform \( G(z) \) and express uncertainty about proving it is an entire function, noting the need to show it has no singularities.
  • One participant suggests differentiating \( G(z) \) and proposes that \( G'(z_0) \) should equal \( H(z_0) \), where \( H(z) \) is defined as an integral involving \( g(t) \).
  • Another participant questions why differentiation was performed only on \( e^{zt} \) while treating \( g(t) \) as a constant, prompting a discussion about the nature of differentiation in this context.
  • One participant mentions checking the Cauchy-Riemann equations and wonders if this could also support the argument for \( G(z) \) being entire.
  • A participant raises a question about the justification for slipping the differentiation operator past the integral sign, indicating a concern about the rigor of the approach taken.
  • Another participant introduces the series expansion of \( e^{zt} \) and discusses the uniform convergence of the series, leading to a new expression for \( G(z) \) as a series of integrals.
  • There is a query about performing the ratio test on the newly formed series expression for \( G(z) \).

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the method of differentiation and the justification for certain steps in the proof. There is no consensus on the best approach to demonstrate that \( G(z) \) is an entire function, and multiple competing ideas are presented.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the need for careful justification in the differentiation process, particularly regarding the treatment of \( g(t) \) and the conditions for interchanging limits and integrals. The discussion reflects various assumptions about continuity and convergence that remain unresolved.

Dustinsfl
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Let $g:[-\pi,\pi]\to\mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function. Define the Fourier transform of $g$ as
$$
G(z)=\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{zt}g(t)dt, \quad \text{for all} \ z\in\mathbb{C}.
$$
Prove that $G(z)$ is an entire function.

That means $G$ has to have no singularities, but other than that I am lost. We have to continuous functions multiplied together but then what?
 
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dwsmith said:
Let $g:[-\pi,\pi]\to\mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function. Define the Fourier transform of $g$ as
$$
G(z)=\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{zt}g(t)dt, \quad \text{for all} \ z\in\mathbb{C}.
$$
Prove that $G(z)$ is an entire function.

That means $G$ has to have no singularities, but other than that I am lost. We have to continuous functions multiplied together but then what?
You want to show that $G(z)$ is differentiable at each point $z_0\in\mathbb{C}.$ If you differentiate $G(z)$ naively: $\displaystyle\frac d{dz}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{zt}g(t)\,dt$ (not worrying about how to justify slipping the differentiation operator past the integral sign), then you see that $G'(z_0)$ "ought" to be equal to $H(z_0)$, where $\displaystyle H(z) = \int_{-\pi}^{\pi}te^{zt}g(t)\,dt.$

To prove that that is indeed the case, go back to the definition of derivative and show that $$\left|\frac{G(z)-G(z_0)}{z-z_0} - H(z_0)\right| \to0\text{ as }z\to z_0.$$

That should be a reasonably straightforward exercise in epsilons and deltas, using the fact that $G$ is continuous, hence bounded, on $[-\pi,\pi].$
 
Opalg said:
You want to show that $G(z)$ is differentiable at each point $z_0\in\mathbb{C}.$ If you differentiate $G(z)$ naively: $\displaystyle\frac d{dz}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{zt}g(t)\,dt$ (not worrying about how to justify slipping the differentiation operator past the integral sign), then you see that $G'(z_0)$ "ought" to be equal to $H(z_0)$, where $\displaystyle H(z) = \int_{-\pi}^{\pi}te^{zt}g(t)\,dt.$

To prove that that is indeed the case, go back to the definition of derivative and show that $$\left|\frac{G(z)-G(z_0)}{z-z_0} - H(z_0)\right| \to0\text{ as }z\to z_0.$$

That should be a reasonably straightforward exercise in epsilons and deltas, using the fact that $G$ is continuous, hence bounded, on $[-\pi,\pi].$

When you differentiated G, why didn't you differentiate via the product? It appears as if you only differentiated e^{zt} and treated g(t) as a constant.

So I need to do:
Given $\epsilon > 0$.

$ \left|\frac{G(z)-G(z_0)}{z-z_0} - H(z_0)\right| < \epsilon \ \ \text{whenever} \ \ 0<|z - z_0|<\delta $
 
Last edited by a moderator:
dwsmith said:
When you differentiated G, why didn't you differentiate via the product? It appears as if you only differentiated e^{zt} and treated g(t) as a constant.
When you are differentiating with respect to $\color{red}z$, $g(t)$ is indeed a constant.
 
Opalg said:
When you are differentiating with respect to $\color{red}z$, $g(t)$ is indeed a constant.

I check that the C.R. equations are satisfied. Could that work as well?
 
Opalg said:
If you differentiate $G(z)$ naively: $\displaystyle\frac d{dz}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{zt}g(t)\,dt$ (not worrying about how to justify slipping the differentiation operator past the integral sign), then you see that $G'(z_0)$ "ought" to be equal to $H(z_0)$, where $\displaystyle H(z) = \int_{-\pi}^{\pi}te^{zt}g(t)\,dt.$

Why can we slip the differentiation operator past the integral sign?
 
dwsmith said:
Let $g:[-\pi,\pi]\to\mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function. Define the Fourier transform of $g$ as
$$
G(z)=\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{zt}g(t)dt, \quad \text{for all} \ z\in\mathbb{C}.
$$
Prove that $G(z)$ is an entire function.

That means $G$ has to have no singularities, but other than that I am lost. We have to continuous functions multiplied together but then what?

Ok so $e^{zt} = \sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(zt)^n}{n!}$.

Then
$$
G(z) = \int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(zt)^ng(t)}{n!}dt
$$

$e^{zt}$ converges uniformly on $[-\pi,\pi]$ so we can write
$$
G(z) = \sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\frac{(zt)^ng(t)}{n!}dt
$$

How can I perform the ratio test on this expression?
 
Last edited:

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