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- I wonder why this formula seems to be widely unknown. I can't find it in the web. "The New Book of Prime Number Records" says something about prime gaps without mentioning this formula though.

Caution I'm not a mathematician. In short, long time ago I calculated prime number gaps just for fun expecting an almost uniform distribution of the frequency of the gaps 2, 4, 6, ... . Instead the frequency showed a series of maxima and minima and I was confused. Later Professor emeritus Oskar Herrmann University Heidelberg cleared my question up and explained (p-1)/(p-2) which has been proved heuristically by Polya and Lehmer the first half of the 20th century. I have that in German. The prediction of this formula confirmed my results within about 1%.

Perhaps this is too trivial to be of interest for mathematicians. What is your opinion?

Perhaps this is too trivial to be of interest for mathematicians. What is your opinion?