Correcting Misconceptions about the Frequency of RF Pulses in MRI

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SUMMARY

The discussion clarifies the distinction between the frequency of RF pulses in MRI and the Larmor frequency. The Larmor frequency, denoted as ω0=γB0, is typically in the 100 MHz range, driven by the static magnetic field B0. In contrast, the RF pulse frequency ω1, associated with the field strength B1, operates in the 100 Hz range, reflecting the significant difference in their magnitudes (B0 in Tesla vs. B1 in micro Tesla). The confusion arose from conflating these two frequencies, which has been resolved through community input.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Larmor frequency in MRI
  • Knowledge of RF pulse mechanics in magnetic resonance imaging
  • Familiarity with magnetic field strengths (Tesla and micro Tesla)
  • Basic principles of resonance and energy storage in oscillatory systems
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Larmor equation and its implications in MRI physics
  • Explore the role of RF pulses in MRI, focusing on B1 field strength
  • Investigate the concept of nutation and its significance in MRI imaging
  • Learn about the effects of varying B0 and B1 on MRI signal quality
USEFUL FOR

Medical physicists, MRI technicians, and anyone involved in the technical aspects of magnetic resonance imaging will benefit from this discussion.

BobP
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The magnetic moment of protons precesses at a frequency ω0=γB0 about the static magnetic field.

In order to move the magnetisation vector into the transverse plane the RF pulse must be applied at a frequency
ω0. However, as B1 (the field strength of the RF pulse) is << B1 how is this possible (as ω0=γB0 >> ω1=γB1)

Does this makes sense. Please can someone explain where I am going wrong
Thanks
 
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I presume that, as with any resonant system, a small disturbance at the resonant frequency will add a little energy each cycle until the cumulative effect is large. The resonant system will store energy from the RF field over many cycles.
 
BobP said:
The magnetic moment of protons precesses at a frequency ω0=γB0 about the static magnetic field.

In order to move the magnetisation vector into the transverse plane the RF pulse must be applied at a frequency
ω0. However, as B1 (the field strength of the RF pulse) is << B1 how is this possible (as ω0=γB0 >> ω1=γB1)

Does this makes sense. Please can someone explain where I am going wrong
Thanks
I am not sure what you are asking. There are two motions that are important here. One is the precession, that is driven by B0 and so by the Larmor equation it is typically in the 100 MHz range. The other is nutation, that is driven by B1 and is typically in the 100 Hz range. This corresponds to the fact that the B0 field is in the Tesla range while the B1 field is in the micro Tesla range.
 
Dale said:
I am not sure what you are asking. There are two motions that are important here. One is the precession, that is driven by B0 and so by the Larmor equation it is typically in the 100 MHz range. The other is nutation, that is driven by B1 and is typically in the 100 Hz range. This corresponds to the fact that the B0 field is in the Tesla range while the B1 field is in the micro Tesla range.
My question was based on a misunderstanding of the difference between frequency of the RF pulse and Larmor frequency.
I foolishky assumed they were the same which is why I was confused. However problem is now fixed :)

Thanks for your help though :)
 

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