The violation of Bell's inequality is often said to imply that either there exists non-locality or there are no hidden variables. In actual experiments it is consistenly found that the inequality is violated by precisely the amount predicted by quantum theory. But quantum theory denies both locality and hidden variables. Therefore aren't we to conclude that the violation of Bell's inequality implies that there is both non-locality and no hidden variables?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Full implications of bell's inequality

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