threeder
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Homework Statement
Let f:X \rightarrow Y and B_1, B_2 \in P(Y) where P(Y) is the power set.
Prove that f^{-1}(B_1\cap B_2) = f^{-1}(B_1) \cap f^{-1}(B_2)
Homework Equations
The book gives this definition:
Suppose f:X \rightarrow Y is a function.
The function f^{-1}:P(Y) \rightarrow P(X) is defined by f^{-1}(B)=\begin{cases} x\in X | f(x)\in B \end{cases}\} for B\in P(Y)
The Attempt at a Solution
All I can do is just basically rewrite the definition:
Say y_0 \in B_1\cap B_2. Then f^{-1}(\{y_0\})=\{x \in X ~|~ y_0=f(x)\}
Then I make magic leap concluding that since y_0 \in B_1\cap B_2, y\in B_1 and y\in B_2. Hence, these sets will be equal and so f^{-1}(B_1\cap B_2) = f^{-1}(B_1) \cap f^{-1}(B_2) . But I realize that a lot of grammar is missing. Can somebody help me out?