Function and subsets - inverses

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the set equality f^{-1}(B_1 ∩ B_2) = f^{-1}(B_1) ∩ f^{-1}(B_2) for a function f: X → Y and subsets B_1, B_2 in the power set P(Y). The proof involves demonstrating both inclusions: first, showing that if x is in f^{-1}(B_1 ∩ B_2), then x must also be in f^{-1}(B_1) ∩ f^{-1}(B_2), and vice versa. The participants emphasize the importance of using the definition of the inverse function f^{-1} and the properties of set inclusion to complete the proof rigorously.

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  • Understanding of functions and their inverses, specifically f: X → Y.
  • Familiarity with set theory, particularly power sets P(Y).
  • Knowledge of set operations, including intersection (∩).
  • Ability to construct mathematical proofs, especially involving subset relations.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of inverse functions in set theory.
  • Learn about the implications of set operations on functions, particularly in the context of f^{-1}.
  • Explore additional examples of set equality proofs in mathematics.
  • Investigate the role of power sets in advanced mathematical concepts.
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Students of mathematics, particularly those studying set theory and functions, as well as educators looking for clear examples of proof techniques in mathematical logic.

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Homework Statement


Let f:X \rightarrow Y and B_1, B_2 \in P(Y) where P(Y) is the power set.

Prove that f^{-1}(B_1\cap B_2) = f^{-1}(B_1) \cap f^{-1}(B_2)

Homework Equations


The book gives this definition:
Suppose f:X \rightarrow Y is a function.

The function f^{-1}:P(Y) \rightarrow P(X) is defined by f^{-1}(B)=\begin{cases} x\in X | f(x)\in B \end{cases}\} for B\in P(Y)


The Attempt at a Solution


All I can do is just basically rewrite the definition:

Say y_0 \in B_1\cap B_2. Then f^{-1}(\{y_0\})=\{x \in X ~|~ y_0=f(x)\}

Then I make magic leap concluding that since y_0 \in B_1\cap B_2, y\in B_1 and y\in B_2. Hence, these sets will be equal and so f^{-1}(B_1\cap B_2) = f^{-1}(B_1) \cap f^{-1}(B_2) . But I realize that a lot of grammar is missing. Can somebody help me out?
 
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The "magic leap" can be given in more detail. You are basically trying to prove "A= B". To prove that for sets, first prove "A\subset B and the prove B\subset A. And to prove A\subset B, start with "if x\in A" and use the properties of A and B to conclude "then x\in B".

Here, you want to prove that f^{-1}(B_1\cap B_2)= f^{-1}(B_1)\cap f^{-1}(B_2). So start "if x\in f^{-1}(B_1\cap B_2)". Then, by definition of f^{-1}, there exist y\in B_1\cap B_2 such that f(x)= y. Since y is in B_1\cap B_2, y is in B_1 and y is in B_2.
1) If y is in B_1 and f(x)= y, then x\in f^{-1}(B_1).
2) If y is in B_2 and f(x)= y, then x\in f^{-1}(B_2).

Since both are true, x\in f^{-1}(B_1)\cap f^{-1}(B_2).
That is, f^{-1}(B_1\cap B_2)\subset f^{-1}(B_1)\cap f^{-1}(B_2).

Now, to prove the other way, that f^{-1}(B_1)\cap f^{-1}(B_2)\subset f^{-1}(B_1\cap B_2)/itex], start:<br /> If x\in f^{-1}(B_1)\cap f^{-1}(B_2) and I will let you try the rest.
 
Lets try it:

Say x\in f^{-1}(B_1)\cap f^{-1}(B_2). Then there exists y\in B_1 and it also y\in B_2 such that y=f(x). Because of x belonging to both sets, and such y existence, it also belongs to y\in B_1\cap B_2 such that y=f(x). Hence f^{-1}(B_1)\cap f^{-1}(B_2) is a subset of f^{-1}(B_1\cap B_2)

right?
 

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