Silversonic
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I've been introduced to the definition of a generalised eigenspace for a linear operator [itex]A[/itex] of an n-dimensional vector space [itex]V[/itex] over an algebraically closed field [itex]k[/itex]. If [itex]\lambda_1, \lambda_2,...,\lambda_k[/itex] are the eigenvalues of [itex]A[/itex] then the characteristic polynomial of [itex]A[/itex] is defined
[itex]\chi_A(t) = det(tI - A) = \prod_i (t-\lambda_i)^{m_i}[/itex]
[itex]m_i[/itex] being the multiplicity of the eigenvalue [itex]\lambda_i[/itex]. [itex]\chi_A(A) = 0[/itex].
Define [itex]q_k(t) = \prod_{i \neq k}(t-\lambda_i)^{m_i} = \chi_A(t)/(t-\lambda_k)^{m_k}[/itex]. Then we define the generalised eigenspace [itex]V(\lambda_k)[/itex] as
[itex]V(\lambda_k) = Im(q_k(A)) = (q_k(A)(v) \mid v \in V)[/itex]
One can show that [itex]V[/itex] is the direct sum of these generalised eigenspaces. By construction [itex]V(\lambda_k)[/itex] is [itex]A[/itex] invariant and [itex](A-\lambda_k I)^{m_k}(v) = 0 ~\forall v \in V(\lambda_k)[/itex]
I'm trying to show that the eigenspace [itex]V_{\lambda_k}[/itex] is contained in the generalised eigenspace [itex]V(\lambda_k)[/itex]. The worst bit is my text says its straightforward, and to top it off I've actually done this before but forgotten how.
I'm honestly a bit lost as to how to do this. Take [itex]v \in V_{\lambda_j}[/itex], then [itex]v = v_1 + ... v_k[/itex] where [itex]v_i \in V(\lambda_i)[/itex].
[itex]Av = \lambda_j v[/itex]
i.e.
[itex]Av_1 + Av_2 + ... + Av_k = \lambda_j v_1 + \lambda_j v_2 + ... + \lambda_j v_k[/itex]
So one has [itex](A-\lambda_jI)v_i = 0 ~\forall i \leq k[/itex]
But can anyone help point me in the right direction as to how I would go about proving this inclusion, using this definition of generalised eigenspace?
[itex]\chi_A(t) = det(tI - A) = \prod_i (t-\lambda_i)^{m_i}[/itex]
[itex]m_i[/itex] being the multiplicity of the eigenvalue [itex]\lambda_i[/itex]. [itex]\chi_A(A) = 0[/itex].
Define [itex]q_k(t) = \prod_{i \neq k}(t-\lambda_i)^{m_i} = \chi_A(t)/(t-\lambda_k)^{m_k}[/itex]. Then we define the generalised eigenspace [itex]V(\lambda_k)[/itex] as
[itex]V(\lambda_k) = Im(q_k(A)) = (q_k(A)(v) \mid v \in V)[/itex]
One can show that [itex]V[/itex] is the direct sum of these generalised eigenspaces. By construction [itex]V(\lambda_k)[/itex] is [itex]A[/itex] invariant and [itex](A-\lambda_k I)^{m_k}(v) = 0 ~\forall v \in V(\lambda_k)[/itex]
I'm trying to show that the eigenspace [itex]V_{\lambda_k}[/itex] is contained in the generalised eigenspace [itex]V(\lambda_k)[/itex]. The worst bit is my text says its straightforward, and to top it off I've actually done this before but forgotten how.
I'm honestly a bit lost as to how to do this. Take [itex]v \in V_{\lambda_j}[/itex], then [itex]v = v_1 + ... v_k[/itex] where [itex]v_i \in V(\lambda_i)[/itex].
[itex]Av = \lambda_j v[/itex]
i.e.
[itex]Av_1 + Av_2 + ... + Av_k = \lambda_j v_1 + \lambda_j v_2 + ... + \lambda_j v_k[/itex]
So one has [itex](A-\lambda_jI)v_i = 0 ~\forall i \leq k[/itex]
But can anyone help point me in the right direction as to how I would go about proving this inclusion, using this definition of generalised eigenspace?