Graviton Spin: What is Moment of Inertia x Angular Frequency?

[Chaos' lil bro Order]

If Spin is 'moment of inertia' (I) x 'angular frequency' (w), what does it mean when we say a particle has spin = 1 or spin =2 like in the theoretical Graviton's case?

 

[dextercioby]

Who claimed that "Spin is 'moment of inertia' (I) x 'angular frequency' (w)" ?

Daniel.

 

[jtbell]

If Spin is 'moment of inertia' (I) x 'angular frequency' (w),

Electrons and other fundamental particles are not little tiny pellets that spin about their axes. As far as we know, they are pointlike and cannot be thought of as having a moment of inertia or an angular velocity. Nevertheless, they have intrinsic angular momentum, which cannot be "pictured" in any classical-like fashion as far as I know.

Electron "spins" do contribute to the total angular momentum of macroscopic objects. This is demonstraed by the Einstein-de Haas effect.

 

[misogynisticfeminist]

in short, spin in quantum mechanics cannot be visualized classically. Unfortunately, we have to take it as an abstract mathematical property of any particle, like charge, mass etc.