How to Derive the Dispersion Relation in the Heisenberg Ferromagnetic Model?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on deriving the dispersion relation in the Heisenberg Ferromagnetic Model, specifically demonstrating that \(\hbar\omega=2JS[1-\cos(ka)]\) using the substitution \(\sigma_{n}^{-}=Ae^{i(kna-wt)}\). Participants highlight the importance of substituting this expression into the equation \(\hbar \frac{d\mathbf{\sigma}_{n}}{dt}=JS\hat{z}\times (\sigma_{n-1}-2\sigma_{n}+\sigma_{n+1})\) to achieve the desired result. The complexity arises from the interpretation of \(\sigma_{n}^{-}\) as a vector and the handling of the imaginary unit during differentiation. Clarifications on the cancellation of factors during differentiation are also discussed.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics, specifically the Heisenberg model.
  • Familiarity with complex numbers and their derivatives.
  • Knowledge of wave functions and their representations in quantum systems.
  • Proficiency in vector calculus as applied in physics.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the Heisenberg equation of motion in quantum mechanics.
  • Learn about the properties of complex exponentials and their derivatives.
  • Explore the implications of the dispersion relation in solid-state physics.
  • Investigate the role of spin waves in ferromagnetic materials.
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Physicists, graduate students in quantum mechanics, and researchers focusing on magnetic materials and their properties will benefit from this discussion.

shedrick94
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Homework Statement


There are several parts to this question, however I could complete these parts. It is just an equation used in the prior part to the question that is need to solve this:

If we define \begin{equation} \sigma_{n}^{-}=\sigma_{n}^{x}+i\sigma_{n}^{y} \end{equation} and with the wavelike substitution \begin{equation} \sigma_{n}^{-}=Ae^{i(kna-wt)} \end{equation} show that one obtains the dispersion relation: \begin{equation} \hbar\omega=2JS[1-cos(ka)] \end{equation}

Homework Equations


The substitution referred to is into this formula:

\begin{equation} \hbar \frac{d\mathbf{\sigma}_{n}}{dt}=JS\hat{z}\times (\sigma_{n-1}-2\sigma_{n}+\sigma_{n+1}) \end{equation} and we also know: \begin{equation} \sigma_{n}=(\sigma_{n}^{x},\sigma_{n}^{y},0) \end{equation}

The Attempt at a Solution



I thought it would simply be that we substitute in the \begin{equation} \sigma_{n}^{-}=Ae^{i(kna-wt)} \end{equation} into the equation and solve. However, that wouldn't make sense to me as the \begin{equation} \sigma_{n}^{-} \end{equation} value does not seem to be defined as a vector but the right hand side of the equation is. Even so when we do this the differential on the LHS would return a factor of 'i' and I'm not sure where that would disappear to either. It seems to me that in the marking scheme it has been fudged to make the answer correct. If not then I think I just cannot follow what has been done. I have attached the mark scheme bellow as an image.

XgdVTB7.png
 
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A is a vector in the substitution. You are multiplying the derivative by i so when you take the derivative of the complex exponential the i(s) cancel.
 
Last edited:

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