Calculate the Energy Levels of an Electron in a Finite Potential Well

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the energy levels of an electron in a finite potential well, utilizing the time-independent Schrödinger equation and exploring wave functions in different regions defined by the potential. Participants analyze the mathematical framework and implications of boundary conditions and transcendental equations related to the problem.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the formulation of the wave function across different regions and the application of boundary conditions. There is exploration of the transcendental equations derived from the even and odd parity solutions, and numerical methods are suggested for finding solutions. Some participants also question the dimensionality of certain variables and the appropriateness of units used in calculations.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing with participants providing feedback on each other's formulations and calculations. Some guidance on unit conversions and dimensional analysis has been offered, indicating a collaborative effort to refine the approach. Multiple interpretations of the results and equations are being explored, particularly regarding the nature of the solutions and their implications.

Contextual Notes

There are constraints regarding the definitions of the wave functions and the assumptions made about the potential well. Participants are also navigating the implications of using different units for energy and the potential, which may affect the interpretation of results.

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Thank you for reading :bow:
Section 1
To find the energy states of the particle, we define the wave function over three discrete domains defined by the sets ##\left\{x<-L\right\}##, ##\left\{-L<x<L\right\}##, and ##\left\{L<x\right\}##. The time independent Schrodinder equation is
\begin{equation}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2}=\frac{2m}{\hbar^2}[V_(x)-|E|]\psi
\end{equation}
Outside of the well, setting ##V(x)=V_0## gives
\begin{equation}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2}=\frac{2m}{\hbar^2}[V_0-|E|]\psi
\end{equation}
The characteristic polynomial is
\begin{equation}\lambda^2-\frac{2m[V_0-|E|]}{\hbar^2}=0\end{equation} with the roots \begin{equation}
\lambda=\pm \sqrt{\frac{2m[V_0-|E|]}{\hbar^2}}\Rightarrow \pm \alpha\end{equation}
and the general solution is
\begin{equation}
\psi=C_1e^{\alpha x}+C_2e^{-\alpha x}
\end{equation}
Inside of the finite well, setting ##V(x)=0## gives
\begin{equation}
\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2}=\frac{-2m}{\hbar^2}|E|\psi
\end{equation}
which has the following characteristic polynomial
\begin{equation}
\lambda^2+\frac{2m}{\hbar^2}|E|=0
\end{equation}
with the roots
\begin{equation}
\lambda=\pm i\sqrt{\frac{2m}{\hbar^2}|E|}\Rightarrow\pm i\sqrt{q}
\end{equation}
and the general solution is
\begin{equation}
\psi=C_1e^{iqx}+C_2e^{-iqx}\Rightarrow \psi= C_3cos(qx)+iC_4sin(qx)
\end{equation}
The real and imaginary parts of a complex valued solution form a fundamental set of solutions of the second order linear ODE, giving
\begin{equation}
\psi=A_1cos(qx)+A_2sin(qx)
\end{equation}
The even parity wave functions are

\begin{equation}
\psi=Ce^{\alpha x}|_{\left\{x<-L\right\}}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}
\psi=Acos(qx)|_{\left\{|x|<L\right\}}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}
\psi=Ce^{-\alpha x}|_{\left\{L<x\right\}}
\end{equation}
the odd parity wave functions are
\begin{equation}
\psi=-Ce^{\alpha x}|_{\left\{x<-L\right\}}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}
\psi=Asin(qx)|_{\left\{|x|<L\right\}}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}
\psi=Ce^{-\alpha x}|_{\left\{L<x\right\}}
\end{equation}
Section 2
For the even solution, we require ##\psi \in C^1(\pm L)\Rightarrow \psi## is once continuously differentiable at ##x=\pm L##
\begin{equation}
\psi_{in}(\pm L)= \psi_{out}(\pm L)\Rightarrow Acos(qL)=Ce^{-\alpha L}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}
\psi'_{in}(\pm L)= \psi'_{out}(\pm L)\Rightarrow Aqsin(qL)=\alpha Ce^{-\alpha L}
\end{equation}
we divide equation (18) by (17) and do a change of variables using $$x=qL$$ and $$r^2=\frac{2mV_0L^2}{\hbar^2}$$ The even solutions are given implicitly by
\begin{equation}
xtan(x)=\sqrt{r^2-x^2}
\end{equation}
For the odd functions, we again require that ##\psi \in C^1(\pm L)##
\begin{equation}
\psi_{in}(\pm L)= \psi_{out}(\pm L)\Rightarrow Asin(qL)=Ce^{-\alpha L}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}
\psi'_{in}(\pm L)= \psi'_{out}(\pm L)\Rightarrow Aqcos(qL)=-\alpha Ce^{-\alpha L}
\end{equation}
and divide equation (20) by (21). Following a change of variables for ##x## and ##r^2## we have
\begin{equation}
-x cot(x)=\sqrt{r^2-x^2}
\end{equation}
Section 3
(19) and (22) are transcendental equations whose solutions are obtained using numerical approximations. The even solutions are given by
\begin{equation}
\{ \{y=xtan(x)\}\cap \{y=\sqrt{r^2-x^2}\}|x\in [0,\infty)\}
\end{equation}
and the odd solutions are given by
\begin{equation}
\{\{y=-xcot(x)\}\cap\{y=\sqrt{r^2-x^2}\}|x\in [0,\infty)\}
\end{equation}
It is worth mentioning the solutions exist in the domain \begin{equation}
\{(x,y)\in {\rm I\!R} \times[0,\infty)\}
\end{equation}
and the solution space is symmetric in the ##x## and the ##-x##. For wells with
\begin{equation}
V_0<\frac{(\hbar \pi)^2}{8mL^2}\Rightarrow L<\frac{\hbar \pi}{\sqrt{8mV_0}}\Rightarrow r<\frac{\pi}{2}
\end{equation}
we use the fact ##r=\frac{\pi}{2}## is in the exceptional set defined by $$\varepsilon(f)=\Big\{\alpha\in\bar{\mathbb{Q}}:f(\alpha)\in\bar{\mathbb{Q}}\Big\}$$ where ##Q## denotes the field of rational numbers.
$$0=-\Big(\frac{\pi}{2}\Big)cot\Big(\frac{\pi}{2}\Big)=\sqrt{\Big(\frac{\pi}{2}\Big)^2-x^2}$$
It follows that
\begin{equation}
\{\{y=-xcot(x)\}\cap\{y=\sqrt{r^2-x^2}\}|(x,r)\in [0,\infty)\times{[0,\frac{\pi}{2}})\}=\{\emptyset\}
\end{equation}
so there are no odd parity energy states. In the meanwhile, we find
\begin{equation}
\{ \{y=xtan(x)\}\cap \{y=\sqrt{r^2-x^2}\}|(x,r)\in [0,\infty)\times[0,\infty)\}\neq\{\emptyset\}
\end{equation}
so there will always be an even parity solution for any ##V_o##. In particular, we find that ##\{y=xtan(x)\}\cap \{y=\sqrt{r^2-x^2}\}\}## where ##r\in[0,\frac{\pi}{2})## is the graph of ##y=xtan(x)## in the region ##\{|x|\leq.934\}##. So, there exists only one energy state of even parity for
$$V_0<\frac{(\hbar \pi)^2}{8mL^2}$$
Section 4
Setting ##L=1nm## and ##V_0=1eV##, we compute
$$
r^2=\frac{2mV_0L^2}{\hbar^2}=\frac{2(9.1\times10^{-31}kg)(1.6\times10^{-19}J)(10^{-9})^2m}{(1.054\times10^{-34}Js)^2}\approx26.2729J
$$
we plot
\begin{equation}
y=xtan(x)
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}
y=-xcot(x)
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}
y=\sqrt{26.2729-x^2}
\end{equation}
and find
$$x_{even}=\{1.312, 3.86\}$$
and
$$x_{odd}=\{2.608, 4.964\}$$
We compute the energy using
\begin{equation}
E=\frac{x^2\hbar^2}{2mL^2}
\end{equation}
giving
$$E_{1even}\approx1.05\times10^{-20}J$$
$$E_{2even}\approx9.09\times10^{-20}J$$
and
$$E_{1odd}\approx4.15\times10^{-20}J$$
$$E_{2odd}\approx1.50\times10^{-19}J$$
The expression for the energy levels of the infinite well is
\begin{equation}
E_n=\frac{n^2\pi^2\hbar^2}{8mL^2}
\end{equation}
giving
$$E_1\approx1.50\times10^{-20}J$$
$$E_2\approx6.02\times10^{-20}J$$
so the ground state energy level for the finite well is lower.
 
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Looks good overall.

Eq 27 and 28: Normally ##\emptyset## is already the empty set. What you wrote is a non-empty set containing the empty set as element.

Section 4:
r is dimensionless, not in J

eV would be a more natural unit for the energy levels, especially as the potential is given in eV as well.
 
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mfb said:
Looks good overall.

Eq 27 and 28: Normally ##\emptyset## is already the empty set. What you wrote is a non-empty set containing the empty set as element.

Section 4:
r is dimensionless, not in J

eV would be a more natural unit for the energy levels, especially as the potential is given in eV as well.
Thank you! :bow: I see what I did there.
 
Some useful combinations to memorize are
\begin{align*}
hc &= 1240~{\rm nm\cdot eV} \\
\hbar c &= 197.3~{\rm nm\cdot eV~(or~MeV\cdot fm)} \\
mc^2 &= 511000~{\rm eV}
\end{align*} where ##m## is the mass of the electron.

Using these and strategically introducing factors of ##c##, you can avoid a lot of unit conversions. For example, you had
$$r^2 = \frac{2mV_0L^2}{\hbar^2} = \frac{2(mc^2)V_0 L^2}{(\hbar c)^2}
= \frac{2(511000~{\rm eV})(1.0~{\rm eV})(1.0~{\rm nm})^2}{(197.3~\rm{eV\cdot nm})^2} = 26$$
 
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vela said:
Some useful combinations to memorize are
\begin{align*}
hc &= 1240~{\rm nm\cdot eV} \\
\hbar c &= 197.3~{\rm nm\cdot eV~(or~MeV\cdot fm)} \\
mc^2 &= 511000~{\rm eV}
\end{align*} where ##m## is the mass of the electron.

Using these and strategically introducing factors of ##c##, you can avoid a lot of unit conversions. For example, you had
$$r^2 = \frac{2mV_0L^2}{\hbar^2} = \frac{2(mc^2)V_0 L^2}{(\hbar c)^2}
= \frac{2(511000~{\rm eV})(1.0~{\rm eV})(1.0~{\rm nm})^2}{(197.3~\rm{eV\cdot nm})^2} = 26$$
Thank you sir 🐯 :bow:
 

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