Help,this problem cost me much time

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How to get this conclusion

if we know the magnetic moment m,and the magnetic induction B.then the force is
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who can tell me how to get this.thanks very much
 
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Hopefully you know that for a current loop of steady current in a uniform magnetic field, the mechanical energy of interaction is [itex]U_{mech}= -m\cdot B[/itex], making the force on the loop [itex]\vec{F}=\nabla(m\cdot B)[/itex]. Now use the vector identity that says

[tex]\nabla (m\cdot B) = m\times (\nabla \times B) + B \times (\nabla \times m)+(m\cdot \nabla)B+(B\cdot \nabla)m[/tex]

The first term vanishes because [itex]\nabla \times B=0[/itex] in the absence of current or changing electric fields. m taken as a vector field is constant wrt change in position, so all its derivative wrt position are null, making the 2nd and 4th term vanish. Remains the 3rd term