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If I create a bijective map between the open balls of two metric spaces, does that automatically imply that this map is a homemorphism?
The discussion confirms that a bijective map between the open balls of two metric spaces indeed implies a homeomorphism, provided certain conditions are met. Specifically, if the map \( f: X \to Y \) is continuous on a basis for \( Y \) and acts as an open map on a basis for \( X \), then it qualifies as a homeomorphism. This conclusion is based on the properties of continuity and open mappings in topology.
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