Homemorphism of two metric space

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion confirms that a bijective map between the open balls of two metric spaces indeed implies a homeomorphism, provided certain conditions are met. Specifically, if the map \( f: X \to Y \) is continuous on a basis for \( Y \) and acts as an open map on a basis for \( X \), then it qualifies as a homeomorphism. This conclusion is based on the properties of continuity and open mappings in topology.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of bijective mappings in topology
  • Familiarity with metric spaces
  • Knowledge of continuity and open maps
  • Basic concepts of homeomorphisms
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of bijective functions in topology
  • Learn about continuity in metric spaces
  • Explore the concept of open maps and their significance
  • Investigate examples of homeomorphisms in various metric spaces
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students of topology, and anyone interested in the properties of metric spaces and homeomorphisms.

xiavatar
Messages
99
Reaction score
15
If I create a bijective map between the open balls of two metric spaces, does that automatically imply that this map is a homemorphism?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Yeah, it does (if I'm interpreting your statement correctly). You only need to check continuity on a basis, so if you have a bijection ##f: X \to Y## between two metric spaces and it is continuous on a basis for ##Y## and an open map on a basis for ## X## it's a homeomorphism.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: platetheduke and xiavatar

Similar threads

  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
3K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
3K
  • · Replies 0 ·
Replies
0
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
2K
Replies
20
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K