How Can Energy Be Used Without Performing Work?

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Energy can be utilized without performing mechanical work, as illustrated by muscle contractions that occur when exerting force without movement. When muscles flex, they undergo repeated contractions and expansions, which generate heat and consume chemical energy. This process does not necessarily translate to external work being done on an object, yet it still results in energy expenditure. The body regulates temperature through these muscle activities, leading to heat production. Overall, the energy used during muscle flexing is primarily converted into heat and occasionally into useful work.
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im kinda confused with some concepts with work, specifically using energy without doing any work. for example, when a person exerts a large force on an object without moving it, he obviously does no work on the object, yet he burns a sufficient number of calories. if all this were converted to heat, its seems as if one could substantially raise their body temperature by applying a force over a time. this much heat does not appear to be produced, although the body does cool itself and i may be mistaken. if all is not converted to heat, how is the rest of the energy used? the only thing i can think of is that your muscles contract and retract very quickly when you apply a constant force, but i cannot really tell if this is the case. some clarification would be nice. thanks
 
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a lot of it is to keep you planted on the ground.
 
ya, but i guess i described the situation I am thinking of poorly. really, i want to know where energy is used if you just flex a muscle for an extended period.
 
When you flex a muscle, the individual muscle fibres repeatedly contract and expand. The movements in those fibres do work on the fibres, which produces heat. Chemical energy in the muscle cells is converted to heat, and sometimes useful work, too.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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