How can I solve improper limits in calculus?

  • Thread starter Thread starter frasifrasi
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary
To solve the improper limit of lim as x approaches infinity of (x * sin(1/x)), substitute 1/x with a new variable w, transforming the limit into lim as w approaches 0 of sin(w)/w, which equals 1. For the limit of (cos x)/x as x approaches infinity, recognize that cos(x) oscillates without a limit, but since it is bounded between -1 and 1, the fraction approaches 0 as x increases. The Squeeze Theorem can be applied here, confirming that -1/x ≤ cos(x)/x ≤ 1/x leads to the limit being 0. Both limits can be resolved using fundamental calculus techniques and known limit properties.
frasifrasi
Messages
276
Reaction score
0
Improper -- How do i do this?

I can't get started with the following improper limits:

lim as x approaches infinity of (x * sin (1/x))

I get this is in the form 0 * infinity, but when I move x to the bottom, and do l'hopital, nothing gets simpler.

And if you have a chance,

what is the lim as x approaches infinity of (cos x)/x ? I don't know what the limit of cos (infinity) is , so I can't get started. Thanks.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
cos(x) has no limit at infinity, because the function oscillates. But, it's bounded, and the denominator (x) is growing without bound. What will happen to the fraction as x gets larger?

As for the first one, try replacing 1/x with a new variable, say w. Then, the limit as z approaches infinity of x sin (1/x) is the same as the limit as w approaches 0 of sin(w)/w, a limit you should know!
 
Last edited:
-->will it approach 0 since we take cos to be 1 or a treat it as any number?

--> for the first one, the answer is one--suing hospital or the formula sin t/t = 1.
 
Yes for the sin question. For the cos, -1/x<=cos(x)/x<=1/x. Squeeze.
 
You know, do you not, that \lim_{x\rightarrow 0} \frac{sin(x)}{x}= 1?

If so, a simple substitution should put x sin(1/x) in that form.
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

Similar threads

Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 23 ·
Replies
23
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 20 ·
Replies
20
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
1K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K