How Can Injectivity Prove f^(-1)(f(A)) = A?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the statement f^(-1)(f(A)) = A under the condition that the function f: X → Y is injective. The key argument is based on demonstrating two inclusions, starting with f^(-1)(f(A)) ⊆ A. The injectivity of f ensures that if f(a) = f(b), then a must equal b, which is crucial for establishing the required inclusion. The proof requires showing that any element x in f^(-1)(f(A)) must also belong to the subset A.

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  • Understanding of injective functions in mathematics
  • Familiarity with set theory and subset notation
  • Knowledge of function notation and inverse functions
  • Basic proof techniques, particularly proof by inclusion
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m_kosak
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who can help me?
ı want to prove this
If f : X → Y is injective and A is a subset of X, then f −1(f(A)) = A.
but how can I do this :(
 
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So being injective means that whenever f(a) = f(b) in Y, then a = b in X.

The usual proof for such statements is to show two inclusions. Let's start with [itex]f^{-1}(f(A)) \subseteq A[/itex].
Let x be an element of the set on the left hand side. So x is an element in X, for which [itex]x \in f^{-1}(f(A))[/itex]. Can you show that x should in fact be an element of A?
 

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