cragar said:
this may be a dumb question but I haft to ask it , so if there are an infinite number of natural numbers 1 , 2 ,3 ... , and there are an infinite number of rational numbers in between 1 and 2 how can they both be infinite if I have more rational numbers than natural numbers . can we quantify infinities
There are different levels of infinity in Cantors transfinite numbers theory.
The first infinity - "w" (Omega) or Aleph_Null includes all the natural numbers.
The set of all irrational numbers is Aleph_1.
The infinities are set up on a basis of mapping on top of each other. Aleph2 cannot be mapped on a one to one basis onto Aleph1.
For example in Hilbert's Hotel you have an infinity of rooms with an infinity of guests staying.
If a new guest comes everyone moves over by 1 room because w + 1 = w.
If an infinity of new guests shows up everyone moves over to the infinity of even numbered rooms and the new guests stay at the odd rooms.
So w + w = w
I think Alef_2 has been defined as the number of points on any of the possible curved surfaces, including all the unusual surfaces that are possible.
I think this is also = to w tetrated to w. Tetration is the next step after - add, multiply, exponentiate, tetration, pentration, really big ...
Alef_3 is unknown. Maybe some type of 4D or higher dimension object would qualify?